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Question-1 Which of the following is NOT a macromolecule?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Lipids
d) Water
Answer: d) Water
Explanation:
Macromolecules are large complex molecules like carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids. Lipids, although not polymers, are considered biomolecules, whereas water is a simple molecule.
Question-2 Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
a) Sucrose
b) Lactose
c) Starch
d) Cellulose
Answer: b) Lactose
Explanation:
Reducing sugars have a free aldehyde or ketone group that can reduce Benedict’s reagent. Lactose contains a free -OH group, making it a reducing sugar.
Question-3 What type of bond connects monosaccharides in a disaccharide?
a) Peptide bond
b) Glycosidic bond
c) Hydrogen bond
d) Phosphodiester bond
Answer: b) Glycosidic bond
Explanation:
A glycosidic bond forms between two monosaccharides through a condensation reaction, linking them into a disaccharide.
Question-4 Which polysaccharide serves as an energy reserve in animals?
a) Cellulose
b) Starch
c) Glycogen
d) Chitin
Answer: c) Glycogen
Explanation:
Glycogen is the storage polysaccharide in animals, primarily stored in the liver and muscles.
Question-5 Which of the following is an example of a disaccharide?
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Maltose
d) Ribose
Answer: c) Maltose
Explanation:
Maltose is formed by the condensation of two glucose molecules.
Question-6 What is the primary function of excretion in organisms?
A) Absorption of nutrients
B) Elimination of metabolic waste products
C) Production of energy
D) Regulation of digestion
Answer: B) Elimination of metabolic waste products
Explanation:
Excretion is the process of eliminating metabolic waste products such as urea, uric acid, and ammonia from the body to maintain homeostasis.
Question-7 Which among the following is NOT a nitrogenous waste product?
A) Urea
B) Uric acid
C) Ammonia
D) Glucose
Answer: D) Glucose
Explanation:
Nitrogenous waste products include urea, uric acid, and ammonia, whereas glucose is a carbohydrate and not an excretory product.
Question-8 What is the process of ammonia excretion called?
A) Ureotelism
B) Uricotelism
C) Ammonotelism
D) Guanotelism
Answer: C) Ammonotelism
Explanation:
Ammonotelism is the excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia, which requires a large amount of water for dilution.
Question-9 Which of the following organisms is ammonotelic?
A) Frog
B) Human
C) Fish
D) Bird
Answer: C) Fish
Explanation:
Ammonotelic organisms, like fish, excrete ammonia directly into water as it is highly toxic and needs immediate dilution.
Question-10 What is the site of urea formation in humans?
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Stomach
Answer: B) Liver
Explanation:
The liver converts ammonia into urea through the urea cycle before it is excreted by the kidneys.
Question-11 What is the main function of the human digestive system?
A) To absorb oxygen
B) To break down food into nutrients
C) To circulate blood
D) To produce hormones
Answer: B) To break down food into nutrients
Explanation:
The human digestive system processes food by breaking it down into simpler substances for absorption and energy production.
Question-12 Which of the following is NOT a digestive gland?
A) Salivary glands
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Thyroid
Answer: D) Thyroid
Explanation:
The thyroid gland produces hormones related to metabolism but does not secrete digestive enzymes.
Question-13 The process of chewing food is known as:
A) Peristalsis
B) Deglutition
C) Mastication
D) Egestion
Answer: C) Mastication
Explanation:
Mastication is the mechanical process of breaking down food into smaller pieces with the help of teeth.
Question-14 What is the function of the epiglottis?
A) Produces digestive enzymes
B) Absorbs water in the intestines
C) Prevents food from entering the trachea
D) Regulates blood sugar levels
Answer: C) Prevents food from entering the trachea
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that covers the windpipe during swallowing, preventing choking.
Question-15 Which part of the alimentary canal is responsible for most of the nutrient absorption?
A) Stomach
B) Large intestine
C) Small intestine
D) Esophagus
Answer: C) Small intestine
Explanation:
The small intestine contains villi that absorb nutrients into the bloodstream.
Question-16 What is the main purpose of cellular respiration?
A) To store energy in the form of glucose
B) To produce oxygen for the cell
C) To generate ATP for cellular activities
D) To break down ATP molecules
Answer: C) To generate ATP for cellular activities
Explanation:
Cellular respiration breaks down glucose to produce ATP, which powers cellular functions.
Question-17 Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?
A) Mitochondrial matrix
B) Cytoplasm
C) Nucleus
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer: B) Cytoplasm
Explanation:
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and breaks glucose into pyruvic acid.
Question-18 Which enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose in glycolysis?
A) Hexokinase
B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) ATP synthase
Answer: A) Hexokinase
Explanation:
Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate.
Question-19 What is the net gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer: A) 2
Explanation:
Glycolysis produces 4 ATP but consumes 2 ATP, resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP.
Question-20 Which molecule serves as the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
A) NADH
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Water
Answer: B) Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen accepts electrons at the end of the electron transport chain, forming water.
Question-21 Which of the following is an asexual mode of reproduction?
A) Pollination
B) Fertilization
C) Budding
D) Gametogenesis
Answer: C) Budding
Explanation:
Budding is a type of asexual reproduction where a new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud on the parent, commonly seen in yeast.
Question-22 Which method of asexual reproduction occurs in Spirogyra?
A) Fragmentation
B) Binary fission
C) Budding
D) Zoospore formation
Answer: A) Fragmentation
Explanation:
Spirogyra reproduces asexually through fragmentation, where a filament breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new individual.
Question-23 The asexual reproductive structures in Chlamydomonas are called:
A) Conidia
B) Zoospores
C) Gemmae
D) Sporophytes
Answer: B) Zoospores
Explanation:
In Chlamydomonas, asexual reproduction occurs through the production of motile zoospores.
Question-24 What are morphologically and genetically identical individuals produced by asexual reproduction called?
A) Hybrids
B) Offspring
C) Clones
D) Variants
Answer: C) Clones
Explanation:
Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical individuals called clones, as there is no fusion of gametes.
Question-25 Which type of vegetative propagation occurs in Bryophyllum?
A) Rhizome
B) Leaf buds
C) Bulbils
D) Offset
Answer: B) Leaf buds
Explanation:
In Bryophyllum, small plantlets arise from notches along the leaf margins, leading to vegetative propagation.
Question-26 What is the main advantage of asexual reproduction?
A) Increases genetic variation
B) Requires two parents
C) Rapid population growth
D) Requires meiosis
Answer: C) Rapid population growth
Explanation:
Asexual reproduction does not require a mate and produces offspring quickly, helping in rapid population expansion.
Question-27 Which of the following organisms reproduces by gemmule formation?
A) Hydra
B) Spongilla
C) Planaria
D) Amoeba
Answer: B) Spongilla
Explanation:
Sponges, like Spongilla, form gemmules, which are dormant reproductive structures that help them survive unfavorable conditions.
Question-28 What is the mode of reproduction in Hydra?
A) Fragmentation
B) Budding
C) Spore formation
D) Binary fission
Answer: B) Budding
Explanation:
Hydra reproduces asexually by forming an outgrowth (bud) that develops into a new individual.
Question-29 Which of the following is a primary sex organ in males?
A) Epididymis
B) Vas deferens
C) Testis
D) Prostate gland
Answer: C) Testis
Explanation:
The testis is the primary reproductive organ in males, producing sperm and testosterone.
Question-30 Which cells provide nourishment to developing sperm in the testes?
A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Spermatogonia
D) Epididymal cells
Answer: B) Sertoli cells
Explanation:
Sertoli cells support and nourish developing sperm within the seminiferous tubules.
Question-31 Who is known as the “Father of Genetics”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Hugo de Vries
D) Watson and Crick
Answer: B) Gregor Mendel
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel is called the “Father of Genetics” for his pioneering work on the principles of inheritance using pea plants.
Question-32 Which of the following is a dominant trait in pea plants?
A) Wrinkled seed
B) Green seed
C) Short plant height
D) Round seed
Answer: D) Round seed
Explanation:
Mendel identified that round seed shape is a dominant trait over wrinkled seed shape in pea plants.
Question-33 What is the unit of inheritance?
A) Chromosome
B) DNA
C) Gene
D) Allele
Answer: C) Gene
Explanation:
A gene is a segment of DNA that controls the expression of a specific trait.
Question-34 Which law states that “the two alleles for a trait segregate independently during gamete formation”?
A) Law of Dominance
B) Law of Segregation
C) Law of Independent Assortment
D) Law of Evolution
Answer: B) Law of Segregation
Explanation:
This law explains how alleles separate so that each gamete carries only one allele for each trait.
Question-35 The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F₂ generation is:
A) 9:3:3:1
B) 3:1
C) 1:2:1
D) 2:2
Answer: B) 3:1
Explanation:
In a monohybrid cross between heterozygous individuals, three individuals show the dominant trait, while one shows the recessive trait.
Question-36 Who discovered nucleic acids?
A) James Watson
B) Friedrich Miescher
C) Francis Crick
D) Rosalind Franklin
Answer: B) Friedrich Miescher
Explanation:
In 1869, Miescher discovered a unique substance from cell nuclei, later named nucleic acid .
Question-37 Which experiment confirmed that DNA is the genetic material?
A) Griffith’s experiment
B) Hershey-Chase experiment
C) Avery, McCarty & MacLeod experiment
D) Meselson-Stahl experiment
Answer: B) Hershey-Chase experiment
Explanation:
Hershey and Chase used bacteriophages labeled with radioactive phosphorus (32P) and sulfur (35S) to prove that DNA is the genetic material.
Question-38 What type of bacteria did Griffith use in his transformation experiment?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Salmonella typhi
Answer: C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:
Griffith used S (smooth, virulent) and R (rough, non-virulent) strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae to demonstrate genetic transformation.
Question-39 What is the role of DNA polymerase in replication?
A) Unwinds the DNA helix
B) Adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
C) Seals Okazaki fragments
D) Prevents DNA tangling
Answer: B) Adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
Explanation:
DNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of nucleotides in the 5′ to 3′ direction during replication.
Question-40 What is the function of RNA primer in DNA replication?
A) Provides energy for DNA synthesis
B) Serves as a starting point for DNA polymerase
C) Prevents DNA degradation
D) Seals gaps in the DNA strand
Answer: B) Serves as a starting point for DNA polymerase
Explanation:
DNA polymerase cannot initiate synthesis on its own; RNA primers provide a 3′ hydroxyl group to start DNA synthesis.
Question-41 Which theory states that life originated from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?
A) Special Creation Theory
B) Cosmozoic Theory
C) Biogenesis Theory
D) Chemical Evolution Theory
Answer: D) Chemical Evolution Theory
Explanation:
The Chemical Evolution Theory by Oparin and Haldane states that life originated from non-living organic molecules through continuous chemical reactions.
Question-42 Which scientist disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Charles Darwin
C) Alexander Oparin
D) J.B.S. Haldane
Answer: A) Louis Pasteur
Explanation:
Pasteur’s experiment with a swan-neck flask proved that life does not spontaneously arise from non-living material.
Question-43 What was the composition of Earth’s primitive atmosphere?
A) Oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide
B) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapor
C) Oxygen, ozone, and nitrogen
D) Carbon monoxide, helium, and hydrogen
Answer: B) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapor
Explanation:
The primitive atmosphere was reducing in nature and lacked free oxygen.
Question-44 Which experiment provided experimental evidence for Oparin’s theory of chemical evolution?
A) Griffith’s experiment
B) Hershey-Chase experiment
C) Miller-Urey experiment
D) Meselson-Stahl experiment
Answer: C) Miller-Urey experiment
Explanation:
Stanley Miller and Harold Urey simulated early Earth conditions and produced simple organic molecules.
Question-45 What is the term for the first pre-cellular life forms?
A) Prokaryotes
B) Protobionts
C) Eukaryotes
D) Archaebacteria
Answer: B) Protobionts
Explanation:
Protobionts were the first molecular aggregates that showed life-like properties.
Question-46 What percentage of plant cells and tissues is made up of water?
A) 50-60%
B) 70-80%
C) 90-95%
D) 30-40%
Answer: C) 90-95%
Explanation:
Water constitutes almost 90-95% of most plant cells and tissues, playing a crucial role in maintaining turgidity and biochemical processes.
Question-47 Which property of water makes it an ideal transport medium for plants?
A) High surface tension
B) High specific heat
C) It is a universal solvent
D) High viscosity
Answer: C) It is a universal solvent
Explanation:
Water dissolves most minerals and nutrients, making it the best transport medium in plants.
Question-48 Which organ is responsible for water absorption in plants?
A) Stem
B) Leaves
C) Root
D) Flowers
Answer: C) Root
Explanation:
Roots absorb water from the soil, mainly through root hairs .
Question-49 In orchids, which special tissue helps in water absorption from air?
A) Cortex
B) Pericycle
C) Velamen
D) Xylem
Answer: C) Velamen
Explanation:
Epiphytic roots of orchids have velamen tissue , which helps absorb water from the air.
Question-50 The process of swelling of hydrophilic colloids due to water absorption is called:
A) Diffusion
B) Osmosis
C) Imbibition
D) Plasmolysis
Answer: C) Imbibition
Explanation:
Imbibition is the absorption of water by hydrophilic colloids , causing them to swell.
Question-51 Which of the following correctly defines plant growth?
A) Permanent and irreversible increase in size
B) Temporary increase in cell size
C) Increase in only height of plant
D) Increase in number of chloroplasts
Answer: A) Permanent and irreversible increase in size
Explanation:
Growth in plants is defined as a permanent, irreversible increase in bulk, volume, and form.
Question-52 Which meristem is responsible for primary growth in plants?
A) Lateral meristem
B) Intercalary meristem
C) Apical meristem
D) Cambium
Answer: C) Apical meristem
Explanation:
Apical meristem is found at the tips of roots and shoots and is responsible for primary growth (increase in height/length).
Question-53 Which phase of growth is also called the “Log phase”?
A) Lag phase
B) Exponential phase
C) Stationary phase
D) Maturation phase
Answer: B) Exponential phase
Explanation:
The Exponential phase (Log phase) is when cells grow rapidly , and the growth rate reaches its maximum .
Question-54 Which hormone is primarily responsible for cell elongation?
A) Cytokinin
B) Gibberellin
C) Ethylene
D) Abscisic Acid
Answer: B) Gibberellin
Explanation:
Gibberellins (GA) promote cell elongation , especially in stem internodes.
Question-55 What does the term “Grand Period of Growth” refer to?
A) The time required for all phases of growth
B) The time from seed germination to flowering
C) The period when roots stop growing
D) The stage after fruiting
Answer: A) The time required for all phases of growth
Explanation:
The Grand Period of Growth refers to the total time duration required for all phases of plant growth (cell division, elongation, maturation).
Question-56 What is the primary function of respiration in living organisms?
A) To store oxygen in tissues
B) To break down food and release energy
C) To produce new cells
D) To convert light energy into chemical energy
Answer: B) To break down food and release energy
Explanation:
Respiration is the biochemical oxidation of food molecules to release energy (ATP) required for various life processes.
Question-57 What is the site of gaseous exchange in humans?
A) Bronchi
B) Alveoli
C) Trachea
D) Diaphragm
Answer: B) Alveoli
Explanation:
Alveoli are tiny, thin-walled air sacs in the lungs where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide exits .
Question-58 Which gas is essential for cellular respiration?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Hydrogen
Answer: B) Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration to oxidize glucose and generate ATP.
Question-59 Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea?
A) Larynx
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Bronchi
Answer: B) Epiglottis
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a flap-like structure that covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food from entering the airway .
Question-60 What is the function of hemoglobin in the blood?
A) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) Digestion of food
C) Regulation of body temperature
D) Production of antibodies
Answer: A) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to oxygen and carbon dioxide , facilitating their transport in the body.
Question-61 Which system is responsible for control and coordination in animals?
A) Digestive system
B) Nervous and endocrine systems
C) Respiratory system
D) Circulatory system
Answer: B) Nervous and endocrine systems
Explanation:
The nervous system (electrical signals) and endocrine system (chemical signals) work together to coordinate bodily functions.
Question-62 What type of nervous system is present in Hydra?
A) Centralized nervous system
B) Diffused nervous system
C) Ladder-type nervous system
D) No nervous system
Answer: B) Diffused nervous system
Explanation:
Hydra has a diffused nervous system with nerve nets spread throughout its body.
Question-63 The central nervous system (CNS) in humans consists of:
A) Brain and spinal cord
B) Brain and cranial nerves
C) Spinal cord and peripheral nerves
D) Brain and sensory organs
Answer: A) Brain and spinal cord
Explanation:
The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord , which process and transmit nerve signals.
Question-64 What is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?
A) Axon
B) Neuron
C) Dendrite
D) Synapse
Answer: B) Neuron
Explanation:
Neurons are specialized cells that transmit nerve impulses .
Question-65 Which part of a neuron receives signals?
A) Axon
B) Dendrites
C) Synapse
D) Myelin sheath
Answer: B) Dendrites
Explanation:
Dendrites receive incoming nerve impulses from other neurons.
Question-66 According to WHO, health is defined as:
A) Absence of disease
B) Complete physical well-being
C) Complete physical, mental, and social well-being
D) Physical and economic stability
Answer: C) Complete physical, mental, and social well-being
Explanation:
WHO defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being , not just the absence of disease.
Question-67 The ability of the body to resist infections and diseases is called:
A) Immunization
B) Vaccination
C) Immunity
D) Infection
Answer: C) Immunity
Explanation:
Immunity is the body’s ability to fight pathogens and prevent diseases .
Question-68 Edward Jenner is known for developing a vaccine against:
A) Polio
B) Measles
C) Smallpox
D) Tuberculosis
Answer: C) Smallpox
Explanation:
Edward Jenner developed the cowpox vaccine , which led to the eradication of smallpox .
Question-69 Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?
A) Antibody production after infection
B) Immunity acquired from vaccines
C) Skin acting as a barrier
D) Passive immunity from mother’s milk
Answer: C) Skin acting as a barrier
Explanation:
Innate immunity is non-specific and includes physical barriers like skin, mucus, and stomach acid.
Question-70 Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies?
A) T-cells
B) B-cells
C) Macrophages
D) Neutrophils
Answer: B) B-cells
Explanation:
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to antigens .
Question-71 What is the primary goal of plant breeding?
A) Increase the aesthetic value of plants
B) Develop high-yield and disease-resistant crops
C) Reduce the water requirement of plants
D) Increase genetic mutations in plants
Answer: B) Develop high-yield and disease-resistant crops
Explanation:
Plant breeding improves yield, quality, and resistance to environmental stress and diseases.
Question-72 The Green Revolution was led by which scientist in India?
A) Norman Borlaug
B) Charles Darwin
C) Gregor Mendel
D) M.S. Swaminathan
Answer: D) M.S. Swaminathan
Explanation:
M.S. Swaminathan , known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India , introduced high-yield wheat and rice varieties.
Question-73 Which method is most commonly used for crop improvement?
A) Tissue culture
B) Hybridization
C) Grafting
D) Natural selection
Answer: B) Hybridization
Explanation:
Hybridization involves crossing plants with desirable traits to create superior varieties.
Question-74 What is the main advantage of hybrid plants?
A) Increased water absorption
B) Higher disease susceptibility
C) Hybrid vigor (heterosis)
D) Reduced genetic variation
Answer: C) Hybrid vigor (heterosis)
Explanation:
Hybrid plants exhibit heterosis , meaning greater growth, yield, and resistance than parent plants.
Question-75 Which crop variety was introduced during the Green Revolution in India?
A) IR8 (Rice)
B) Red Gram
C) Sunflower
D) Maize
Answer: A) IR8 (Rice)
Explanation:
IR8 rice and Sonalika & Kalyan Sona wheat were high-yielding varieties introduced during the Green Revolution .
Question-76 Who is known as the “Father of Biotechnology”?
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Kary Mullis
C) Karl Ereky
D) Watson and Crick
Answer: C) Karl Ereky
Explanation:
Karl Ereky coined the term biotechnology in 1919 to describe industrial use of biological processes.
Question-77 Recombinant DNA technology was first developed by:
A) Watson and Crick
B) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Kary Mullis
Answer: B) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
Explanation:
Cohen and Boyer (1973) developed rDNA technology , allowing genetic modification.
Question-78 Which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific sites?
A) DNA polymerase
B) Restriction endonuclease
C) Ligase
D) Reverse transcriptase
Answer: B) Restriction endonuclease
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences , enabling genetic engineering.
Question-79 The process of making multiple copies of a gene is called:
A) Transcription
B) Cloning
C) Translation
D) Mutation
Answer: B) Cloning
Explanation:
Gene cloning produces identical copies of a gene or DNA fragment .
Question-80 What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?
A) Cuts DNA at specific sites
B) Joins DNA fragments
C) Amplifies DNA
D) Transcribes DNA to RNA
Answer: B) Joins DNA fragments
Explanation:
DNA ligase joins sticky or blunt-ended DNA fragments during gene cloning.
Question-81 Who introduced the term “Ecology”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Ernst Haeckel
C) Gregor Mendel
D) Carolus Linnaeus
Answer: B) Ernst Haeckel
Explanation:
Ernst Haeckel (1865) introduced the term ecology , which studies interactions between organisms and their environment.
Question-82 What is the basic unit of ecological hierarchy?
A) Population
B) Organism
C) Community
D) Ecosystem
Answer: B) Organism
Explanation:
An individual organism is the smallest unit in the ecological hierarchy.
Question-83 Which of the following describes a population?
A) A group of different species in an area
B) A group of interbreeding individuals of the same species in an area
C) All living organisms in an ecosystem
D) A community and its physical environment
Answer: B) A group of interbreeding individuals of the same species in an area
Explanation:
A population consists of individuals of the same species living together in a specific area.
Question-84 The niche of an organism refers to:
A) Its role in the ecosystem
B) Its geographical location
C) Its physical space in a habitat
D) Its interaction with non-living components
Answer: A) Its role in the ecosystem
Explanation:
Niche refers to an organism’s functional role in an ecosystem , including interactions, food, and habitat use.
Question-85 Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor?
A) Temperature
B) Rainfall
C) Soil composition
D) Predation
Answer: D) Predation
Explanation:
Biotic factors include living interactions like predation, competition, and mutualism.
Question-86 Who coined the term “ecosystem”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Ernst Haeckel
C) A.G. Tansley
D) Gregor Mendel
Answer: C) A.G. Tansley
Explanation:
A.G. Tansley (1935) introduced the term “ecosystem” to describe the interaction of biotic and abiotic components .
Question-87 The two main types of ecosystems are:
A) Natural and Artificial
B) Forest and Grassland
C) Freshwater and Marine
D) Producers and Consumers
Answer: A) Natural and Artificial
Explanation:
Natural ecosystems function independently, while artificial ecosystems require human intervention (e.g., farms, aquariums).
Question-88 Which of the following is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?
A) Decomposers
B) Rainfall
C) Producers
D) Consumers
Answer: B) Rainfall
Explanation:
Abiotic factors are non-living components like temperature, light, and water that influence an ecosystem.
Question-89 The vertical distribution of plants in a forest ecosystem is called:
A) Zonation
B) Stratification
C) Productivity
D) Ecological succession
Answer: B) Stratification
Explanation:
Stratification refers to the arrangement of plant species at different heights in a forest , e.g., canopy, understory, shrub, and herb layers.
Question-90 In an aquatic ecosystem, zonation is based on:
A) Light penetration and depth
B) Temperature changes
C) Salinity levels
D) Wind speed
Answer: A) Light penetration and depth
Explanation:
Aquatic zonation includes epipelagic, mesopelagic, bathypelagic, and benthic zones based on light availability.
Question-91 Who coined the term “Biodiversity”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Walter Rosen
C) Ernst Haeckel
D) Edward Wilson
Answer: B) Walter Rosen
Explanation:
The term “Biodiversity” was coined by Walter Rosen in 1982 but was popularized by Edward Wilson .
Question-92 How many levels of biodiversity are recognized?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: C) Three
Explanation:
Biodiversity is classified into Genetic Diversity, Species Diversity, and Ecosystem Diversity .
Question-93 Which biodiversity level refers to variations within a species?
A) Species diversity
B) Genetic diversity
C) Ecosystem diversity
D) Functional diversity
Answer: B) Genetic diversity
Explanation:
Genetic diversity refers to the variation in genes within a species, crucial for adaptation and evolution.
Question-94 Which of the following ecosystems has the highest biodiversity?
A) Desert
B) Tropical rainforest
C) Tundra
D) Deep-sea ecosystem
Answer: B) Tropical rainforest
Explanation:
Tropical rainforests have high species richness due to favorable climate and long evolutionary history .
Question-95 India is recognized as one of the:
A) Biodiversity hotspots
B) Megadiverse countries
C) Ecologically stable countries
D) Least diverse countries
Answer: B) Megadiverse countries
Explanation:
India is one of the 12 megadiverse countries , containing 8.1% of the world’s biodiversity .
Question-96 The primary nitrogenous waste excreted by humans is:
A) Ammonia
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Guanine
Answer: B) Urea
Explanation:
Humans are ureotelic and excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as urea, which is less toxic and requires less water for elimination.
Question-97 Which of the following is a natural method of vegetative reproduction?
A) Grafting
B) Cutting
C) Layering
D) Rhizome
Answer: D) Rhizome
Explanation:
Rhizomes, as seen in ginger and turmeric, help in natural vegetative propagation.
Question-98 Which type of water is available for plant absorption?
A) Gravitational water
B) Capillary water
C) Hygroscopic water
D) Combined water
Answer: B) Capillary water
Explanation:
Capillary water is held in soil pores and is available for absorption by plant roots.
Question-99 Which of the following is a function of the medulla oblongata?
A) Memory processing
B) Coordination of muscle movements
C) Regulation of heartbeat and breathing
D) Control of emotions
Answer: C) Regulation of heartbeat and breathing
Explanation:
The medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions like breathing and heart rate.
Question-100 What is the function of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
A) DNA replication in cells
B) DNA amplification in vitro
C) RNA translation
D) Protein synthesis
Answer: B) DNA amplification in vitro
Explanation:
PCR (developed by Kary Mullis) is used to amplify specific DNA sequences rapidly.