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Question-1 The double-helix structure of DNA was proposed by:
a) Mendel
b) Watson and Crick
c) Griffith
d) Hershey and Chase
Answer: b) Watson and Crick
Explanation:
Watson and Crick described the double-helix model of DNA based on X-ray diffraction studies.
Question-2 The monomer unit of nucleic acids is called a:
a) Nucleoside
b) Nucleotide
c) Amino acid
d) Monosaccharide
Answer: b) Nucleotide
Explanation:
Nucleotides consist of a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar.
Question-3 Which enzyme is responsible for digesting lipids?
a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Protease
d) Cellulase
Answer: b) Lipase
Explanation:
Lipase catalyzes the breakdown of lipids into glycerol and fatty acids.
Question-4 The structure of a protein that determines its overall 3D shape is called:
a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
Answer: c) Tertiary structure
Explanation:
The tertiary structure is the complete 3D folding of a polypeptide chain.
Question-5 Which of the following is an example of a conjugated protein?
a) Albumin
b) Hemoglobin
c) Collagen
d) Keratin
Answer: b) Hemoglobin
Explanation:
Hemoglobin is a conjugated protein with an iron-containing prosthetic group (heme).
Question-6 The presence of glucose in urine indicates:
A) Normal kidney function
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Excess protein intake
D) Liver disease
Answer: B) Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:
In diabetes mellitus, high blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold, leading to glucose excretion in urine (glucosuria).
Question-7 Which excretory product requires the least amount of water for elimination?
A) Ammonia
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Creatinine
Answer: C) Uric acid
Explanation:
Uricotelic animals excrete uric acid in a solid or semi-solid form, conserving water.
Question-8 Where does tubular reabsorption primarily occur?
A) Glomerulus
B) Proximal convoluted tubule
C) Collecting duct
D) Ureter
Answer: B) Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:
Most essential nutrients and water are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule to prevent their loss in urine.
Question-9 What is the process of eliminating urine from the body called?
A) Ultrafiltration
B) Micturition
C) Dialysis
D) Secretion
Answer: B) Micturition
Explanation:
Micturition is the process of expelling urine from the urinary bladder through the urethra.
Question-10 Which organ is responsible for osmoregulation in marine birds?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Salt glands
D) Pancreas
Answer: C) Salt glands
Explanation:
Marine birds have salt glands near their nostrils to excrete excess salts and maintain osmotic balance.
Question-11 What type of digestion takes place in the mouth?
A) Only mechanical
B) Only chemical
C) Both mechanical and chemical
D) No digestion occurs
Answer: C) Both mechanical and chemical
Explanation:
Teeth perform mechanical digestion (chewing), while salivary amylase chemically digests carbohydrates.
Question-12 What is the function of mucus in the stomach?
A) Neutralizes acids
B) Protects the stomach lining
C) Aids in digestion of fats
D) Produces pepsin
Answer: B) Protects the stomach lining
Explanation:
Mucus prevents the stomach from being damaged by its own acidic secretions.
Question-13 Which organ secretes insulin?
A) Stomach
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Small intestine
Answer: C) Pancreas
Explanation:
The pancreas contains beta cells that produce insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels.
Question-14 The common bile duct is formed by the union of:
A) Hepatic and cystic ducts
B) Pancreatic and cystic ducts
C) Hepatic and pancreatic ducts
D) Gallbladder and esophagus
Answer: A) Hepatic and cystic ducts
Explanation:
The hepatic duct carries bile from the liver, while the cystic duct carries bile from the gallbladder.
Question-15 Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?
A) Insulin
B) Gastrin
C) Secretin
D) Cholecystokinin
Answer: B) Gastrin
Explanation:
Gastrin is released by the stomach to stimulate acid and enzyme production.
Question-16 Which enzyme is involved in substrate-level phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle?
A) ATP synthase
B) Succinyl CoA synthetase
C) Phosphofructokinase
D) Hexokinase
Answer: B) Succinyl CoA synthetase
Explanation:
This enzyme catalyzes ATP production from GTP in the Krebs cycle.
Question-17 What is the total ATP yield from one molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration?
A) 30
B) 36
C) 38
D) 40
Answer: C) 38
Explanation:
The complete aerobic oxidation of glucose produces 38 ATP molecules.
Question-18 What is the function of FADH₂ in respiration?
A) Accepts oxygen
B) Acts as a final electron acceptor
C) Donates electrons to the electron transport chain
D) Converts ADP to ATP
Answer: C) Donates electrons to the electron transport chain
Explanation:
FADH₂ transfers electrons to the ETC, generating ATP.
Question-19 Which molecule is regenerated at the end of the Krebs cycle?
A) Acetyl CoA
B) Oxaloacetate
C) Citrate
D) Pyruvate
Answer: B) Oxaloacetate
Explanation:
Oxaloacetate combines with Acetyl CoA to restart the cycle.
Question-20 What is the function of ATP synthase?
A) Pumps protons into the mitochondrial matrix
B) Generates ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
C) Transfers electrons in the ETC
D) Converts pyruvate into Acetyl CoA
Answer: B) Generates ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate
Explanation:
ATP synthase utilizes the proton gradient to synthesize ATP.
Question-21 The female reproductive structure in a flower is called:
A) Ovary
B) Androecium
C) Gynoecium
D) Anther
Answer: C) Gynoecium
Explanation:
The gynoecium consists of carpels, which include the ovary, style, and stigma.
Question-22 What is the ploidy level of endosperm in angiosperms?
A) Haploid
B) Diploid
C) Triploid
D) Tetraploid
Answer: C) Triploid
Explanation:
The endosperm is formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei and one male gamete, making it triploid.
Question-23 Which of the following types of pollination occurs within the same flower?
A) Geitonogamy
B) Xenogamy
C) Autogamy
D) Anemophily
Answer: C) Autogamy
Explanation:
Autogamy is self-pollination, where pollen from an anther is transferred to the stigma of the same flower.
Question-24 The transfer of pollen grains from an anther to a stigma is called:
A) Fertilization
B) Pollination
C) Germination
D) Sporogenesis
Answer: B) Pollination
Explanation:
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains to the stigma, which is a prerequisite for fertilization.
Question-25 What is the function of the tapetum in an anther?
A) Protection
B) Support
C) Nutrition
D) Gamete formation
Answer: C) Nutrition
Explanation:
The tapetum provides nourishment to developing pollen grains.
Question-26 What is the function of seminal vesicles?
A) Store sperm
B) Produce fructose-rich fluid for sperm energy
C) Provide site for fertilization
D) Neutralize vaginal acidity
Answer: B) Produce fructose-rich fluid for sperm energy
Explanation:
Seminal vesicles secrete fructose-rich fluid that provides energy for sperm movement.
Question-27 In which phase of the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
A) Follicular phase
B) Ovulatory phase
C) Luteal phase
D) Menstrual phase
Answer: B) Ovulatory phase
Explanation:
Ovulation typically occurs around the 14th day of the menstrual cycle.
Question-28 What is the fate of the corpus luteum if fertilization does not occur?
A) It degenerates into the corpus albicans
B) It continues producing hormones
C) It forms a zygote
D) It releases FSH
Answer: A) It degenerates into the corpus albicans
Explanation:
If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to a drop in progesterone and menstruation.
Question-29 Which structure in the female reproductive system acts as the birth canal?
A) Uterus
B) Fallopian tube
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
Answer: D) Vagina
Explanation:
The vagina serves as the passage for childbirth and menstrual flow.
Question-30 What is the functional unit of the testis where spermatogenesis occurs?
A) Epididymis
B) Vas deferens
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Prostate gland
Answer: C) Seminiferous tubules
Explanation:
The seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm production in the testis.
Question-31 Which blood group shows codominance?
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) AB
Answer: D) AB
Explanation:
In AB blood group, both A and B alleles express equally, showing codominance.
Question-32 What is the chromosomal basis of sex determination in humans?
A) XX-XY system
B) ZW-ZZ system
C) Haploid-diploid system
D) XO-XX system
Answer: A) XX-XY system
Explanation:
In humans, females have XX chromosomes, while males have XY chromosomes.
Question-33 Which genetic disorder is caused due to the presence of an extra 21st chromosome?
A) Turner’s Syndrome
B) Down’s Syndrome
C) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
D) Sickle Cell Anemia
Answer: B) Down’s Syndrome
Explanation:
Down’s Syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21 .
Question-34 Which type of linkage shows that genes are inherited together?
A) Complete linkage
B) Incomplete linkage
C) Codominance
D) Pleiotropy
Answer: A) Complete linkage
Explanation:
Genes that are close together on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together without crossing over.
Question-35 Who is known for discovering linkage and crossing over?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
C) Charles Darwin
D) Hugo de Vries
Answer: B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
Explanation:
He conducted experiments on Drosophila melanogaster (fruit flies) to study linkage.
Question-36 What is the full form of HGP?
A) Human Genome Project
B) Human Gene Pool
C) Human Genetic Processing
D) Human Genetic Profile
Answer: A) Human Genome Project
Explanation:
The Human Genome Project (HGP) mapped all human genes to understand genetic diseases.
Question-37 The RNA molecule that carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes is:
A) tRNA
B) rRNA
C) mRNA
D) siRNA
Answer: C) mRNA
Explanation:
Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries genetic instructions from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis.
Question-38 What is the initiation codon in protein synthesis?
A) UAG
B) UAA
C) AUG
D) UGA
Answer: C) AUG
Explanation:
AUG codes for methionine , which initiates translation.
Question-39 Which scientist proposed the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) Francis Crick
C) James Watson
D) Oswald Avery
Answer: B) Francis Crick
Explanation:
Crick proposed the Central Dogma , which explains the flow of genetic information (DNA → RNA → Protein).
Question-40 What is the function of DNA ligase?
A) Unwinds the DNA
B) Joins Okazaki fragments
C) Synthesizes RNA primers
D) Breaks hydrogen bonds
Answer: B) Joins Okazaki fragments
Explanation:
DNA ligase seals gaps between Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
Question-41 Which scientist proposed the Mutation Theory of Evolution?
A) Hugo de Vries
B) August Weismann
C) Gregor Mendel
D) T.H. Morgan
Answer: A) Hugo de Vries
Explanation:
Hugo de Vries proposed that evolution occurs due to sudden, large mutations (Saltation).
Question-42 Which type of selection favors intermediate traits and eliminates extremes?
A) Disruptive Selection
B) Directional Selection
C) Stabilizing Selection
D) Artificial Selection
Answer: C) Stabilizing Selection
Explanation:
Stabilizing selection maintains the average trait by eliminating extreme forms.
Question-43 What is the significance of Archaeopteryx in evolution?
A) It was the first mammal
B) It was the first amphibian
C) It is a missing link between reptiles and birds
D) It was the ancestor of all insects
Answer: C) It is a missing link between reptiles and birds
Explanation:
Archaeopteryx had reptilian (teeth, tail) and avian (feathers, wings) traits , showing evolutionary transition.
Question-44 Which term describes the independent evolution of similar traits in different lineages?
A) Divergent Evolution
B) Adaptive Radiation
C) Convergent Evolution
D) Genetic Drift
Answer: C) Convergent Evolution
Explanation:
Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated organisms develop similar traits due to similar environments.
Question-45 What is genetic drift?
A) Large-scale migration of organisms
B) Sudden changes in allele frequency due to chance
C) Transfer of genes between species
D) Evolution by natural selection
Answer: B) Sudden changes in allele frequency due to chance
Explanation:
Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequency, especially in small populations .
Question-46 Water moves from a region of:
A) More negative to less negative water potential
B) Less negative to more negative water potential
C) Lower pressure to higher pressure
D) Higher osmotic pressure to lower osmotic pressure
Answer: B) Less negative to more negative water potential
Explanation:
Water moves along a water potential gradient , from higher to lower potential .
Question-47 The main driving force for passive water absorption is:
A) Root pressure
B) Osmosis
C) Transpiration pull
D) Diffusion
Answer: C) Transpiration pull
Explanation:
Transpiration pull creates a negative pressure that helps in water absorption.
Question-48 Which pathway transports water through cell walls and intercellular spaces?
A) Symplast pathway
B) Apoplast pathway
C) Vacuolar pathway
D) Transmembrane pathway
Answer: B) Apoplast pathway
Explanation:
The apoplast pathway moves water through non-living spaces like cell walls .
Question-49 What is the name of the force responsible for pulling water upward in plants?
A) Capillarity
B) Transpiration pull
C) Root pressure
D) Guttation
Answer: B) Transpiration pull
Explanation:
Transpiration pull creates tension in the xylem , pulling water upwards.
Question-50 What is the main function of root pressure?
A) Helps in guttation
B) Helps in transpiration
C) Prevents wilting
D) Increases water absorption
Answer: A) Helps in guttation
Explanation:
Root pressure forces excess water out through hydathodes , causing guttation.
Question-51 What is photoperiodism?
A) Effect of temperature on flowering
B) Effect of light duration on flowering
C) Movement of chloroplasts in cells
D) Growth of plants in response to gravity
Answer: B) Effect of light duration on flowering
Explanation:
Photoperiodism is the response of plants to light duration for flowering .
Question-52 Which plant is an example of a short-day plant (SDP)?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Sunflower
D) Tomato
Answer: B) Rice
Explanation:
Short-day plants (SDP) flower when exposed to short light durations .
Question-53 Which plant hormone is responsible for apical dominance?
A) Cytokinin
B) Auxin
C) Gibberellin
D) Abscisic Acid
Answer: B) Auxin
Explanation:
Auxin promotes apical dominance , preventing the growth of lateral buds.
Question-54 Which of the following growth curves represents plant growth?
A) J-shaped
B) Linear
C) Sigmoid
D) Exponential
Answer: C) Sigmoid
Explanation:
Sigmoid growth curve consists of Lag, Log, and Stationary phases .
Question-55 Which deficiency symptom is caused by a lack of nitrogen?
A) Necrosis
B) Wilting
C) Chlorosis
D) Stunted growth
Answer: C) Chlorosis
Explanation:
Nitrogen deficiency causes chlorosis (yellowing of leaves) due to reduced chlorophyll synthesis.
Question-56 Which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A) Pulmonary arteries
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Coronary arteries
D) Vena cava
Answer: B) Pulmonary veins
Explanation:
Pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium .
Question-57 What prevents the backflow of blood in veins?
A) Valves
B) High blood pressure
C) Thick walls
D) Peristalsis
Answer: A) Valves
Explanation:
Veins have valves to prevent backflow and ensure unidirectional blood flow toward the heart.
Question-58 What is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node?
A) Pump blood into arteries
B) Act as the heart’s pacemaker
C) Transport oxygen
D) Control blood pressure
Answer: B) Act as the heart’s pacemaker
Explanation:
The SA node generates electrical impulses that regulate heart rate .
Question-59 What is the cardiac output of an average adult?
A) 1 liter per minute
B) 3 liters per minute
C) 5 liters per minute
D) 10 liters per minute
Answer: C) 5 liters per minute
Explanation:
Cardiac output is the stroke volume (70 mL) × heart rate (72 bpm) ≈ 5 liters per minute .
Question-60 Which of the following has the highest affinity for hemoglobin?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen
Answer: C) Carbon monoxide
Explanation:
Carbon monoxide (CO) binds 200 times more strongly to hemoglobin than oxygen, reducing oxygen transport.
Question-61 What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A) Transport oxygen
B) Protect the brain and spinal cord
C) Regulate blood pressure
D) Control body temperature
Answer: B) Protect the brain and spinal cord
Explanation:
CSF acts as a cushion , protecting the brain and spinal cord from injuries.
Question-62 Which nervous system controls reflex actions?
A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Parasympathetic nervous system
C) Central nervous system
D) Spinal cord
Answer: D) Spinal cord
Explanation:
Reflex actions are quick, automatic responses controlled by the spinal cord .
Question-63 What is a reflex arc?
A) A circuit for reflex actions
B) A part of the brain
C) A type of neurotransmitter
D) A sensory receptor
Answer: A) A circuit for reflex actions
Explanation:
A reflex arc is the neural pathway for reflex actions.
Question-64 Which hormone is known as the “fight or flight” hormone?
A) Insulin
B) Adrenaline
C) Estrogen
D) Thyroxine
Answer: B) Adrenaline
Explanation:
Adrenaline is released during stress, preparing the body for fight or flight .
Question-65 Which gland is called the “master gland” of the endocrine system?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Pituitary gland
D) Pancreas
Answer: C) Pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pituitary gland controls the function of other endocrine glands and regulates various body functions.
Question-66 HIV primarily attacks which cells?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) Helper T-cells
D) B-cells
Answer: C) Helper T-cells
Explanation:
HIV infects and destroys CD4+ Helper T-cells , weakening the immune system.
Question-67 The confirmatory test for HIV is:
A) ELISA
B) Widal test
C) Western Blot
D) PCR
Answer: C) Western Blot
Explanation:
Western Blot is a highly specific test for detecting HIV antibodies .
Question-68 Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
A) Malaria
B) Tuberculosis
C) Dengue
D) HIV/AIDS
Answer: B) Tuberculosis
Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis , a bacterium .
Question-69 Which is the causative agent of pneumonia?
A) Mycobacterium
B) Plasmodium
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Salmonella
Answer: C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and affects the lungs .
Question-70 The Rh factor was first discovered in:
A) Dogs
B) Rhesus monkeys
C) Humans
D) Frogs
Answer: B) Rhesus monkeys
Explanation:
The Rh factor (D antigen) was discovered in Rhesus monkeys , which helped classify blood groups .
Question-71 Which microorganism is commonly used in Single-Cell Protein (SCP) production?
A) Lactobacillus
B) Spirulina
C) Rhizobium
D) Penicillium
Answer: B) Spirulina
Explanation:
Spirulina is a protein-rich microalga used as a nutritional supplement .
Question-72 What is the main purpose of mutation breeding?
A) Slow plant growth
B) Induce genetic variation
C) Increase water requirement
D) Stop pollination
Answer: B) Induce genetic variation
Explanation:
Mutation breeding uses chemical or radiation-induced mutations to create new plant varieties .
Question-73 Which crop is associated with hybrid varieties “Jaya” and “Ratna”?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Maize
D) Sugarcane
Answer: B) Rice
Explanation:
Jaya and Ratna are high-yielding rice varieties introduced in India.
Question-74 Which crop is associated with hybrid varieties “Jaya” and “Ratna”?
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Maize
D) Sugarcane
Answer: B) Rice
Explanation:
Jaya and Ratna are high-yielding rice varieties introduced in India.
Question-75 In plant tissue culture, the part of the plant used to grow a new plant is called?
A) Embryo
B) Explant
C) Callus
D) Zygote
Answer: B) Explant
Explanation:
Explant is a plant part (e.g., leaf, stem) used in tissue culture to grow a new plant.
Question-76 Which term refers to the use of living organisms to produce useful products?
A) Ecology
B) Biotechnology
C) Evolution
D) Pharmacology
Answer: B) Biotechnology
Explanation:
Biotechnology is the application of living organisms and biological processes in industry.
Question-77 The first transgenic plant produced was:
A) Tomato
B) Cotton
C) Tobacco
D) Potato
Answer: C) Tobacco
Explanation:
The first genetically modified plant was tobacco , modified for antibiotic resistance .
Question-78 Which type of gene therapy alters reproductive cells?
A) Somatic gene therapy
B) Germline gene therapy
C) Ex vivo gene therapy
D) In situ gene therapy
Answer: B) Germline gene therapy
Explanation:
Germline gene therapy introduces genetic changes in sperm or egg cells , passing changes to offspring.
Question-79 Which of the following techniques is used for DNA fingerprinting?
A) PCR and gel electrophoresis
B) Western blotting
C) ELISA
D) Northern blotting
Answer: A) PCR and gel electrophoresis
Explanation:
DNA fingerprinting uses PCR to amplify DNA and gel electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments based on size.
Question-80 Which vector is commonly used for transferring genes into plant cells?
A) Lambda phage
B) Plasmid
C) Ti plasmid
D) Cosmid
Answer: C) Ti plasmid
Explanation:
The Ti plasmid (Tumor-inducing plasmid) from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used for gene transfer in plants .
Question-81 Which adaptation helps mammals survive in cold climates?
A) Long ears and tails
B) Increased sweating
C) Thick fat layers (blubber)
D) Reduced metabolic rate
Answer: C) Thick fat layers (blubber)
Explanation:
Blubber (fat layers) insulate polar mammals, reducing heat loss.
Question-82 Which growth model shows a J-shaped curve?
A) Logistic growth
B) Exponential growth
C) Sigmoid growth
D) Density-dependent growth
Answer: B) Exponential growth
Explanation:
Exponential growth occurs when resources are unlimited , leading to a J-shaped curve.
Question-83 Carrying capacity refers to:
A) The maximum population size an environment can support
B) The total number of organisms in an ecosystem
C) The birth rate of a species
D) The reproductive potential of a population
Answer: A) The maximum population size an environment can support
Explanation:
Carrying capacity (K) is the upper limit a habitat can sustain due to resource availability.
Question-84 Which factor does NOT affect population density?
A) Immigration
B) Emigration
C) Color of organisms
D) Birth rate
Answer: C) Color of organisms
Explanation:
Population density depends on birth rate, death rate, immigration, and emigration , not color.
Question-85 Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states that:
A) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely
B) All species in a community must compete
C) Competition always leads to species extinction
D) Intraspecific competition is beneficial
Answer: A) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely
Explanation:
Gause’s principle states that species competing for the same resources cannot coexist permanently .
Question-86 The primary producers in an aquatic ecosystem are:
A) Zooplankton
B) Phytoplankton
C) Carnivores
D) Herbivores
Answer: B) Phytoplankton
Explanation:
Phytoplankton (algae, cyanobacteria) perform photosynthesis , forming the base of aquatic food chains .
Question-88 What is Net Primary Productivity (NPP)?
A) Total energy produced by plants
B) Energy remaining after plant respiration
C) Energy consumed by herbivores
D) Total organic matter in an ecosystem
Answer: B) Energy remaining after plant respiration
Explanation:
NPP = GPP – Respiration , where GPP is the total energy fixed by plants.
Question-89 Which type of food chain begins with dead organic matter?
A) Grazing food chain
B) Parasitic food chain
C) Detritus food chain
D) Omnivore food chain
Answer: C) Detritus food chain
Explanation:
Detritus food chain starts with dead matter , decomposed by fungi, bacteria, and detritivores .
Question-90 What is an ecological pyramid?
A) A representation of population sizes
B) A food web diagram
C) A graphical representation of trophic levels
D) A nutrient cycle
Answer: C) A graphical representation of trophic levels
Explanation:
Ecological pyramids show energy, biomass, or number relationships at different trophic levels.
Question-91 Which invasive species has affected biodiversity in India?
A) Lion-tailed macaque
B) Lantana camara
C) Snow leopard
D) Nilgai
Answer: B) Lantana camara
Explanation:
Lantana camara is an invasive species that threatens native plant species.
Question-92 What is the main objective of the Ramsar Convention?
A) Protect forests
B) Conserve wetlands
C) Reduce pollution
D) Promote genetic engineering
Answer: B) Conserve wetlands
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention (1971) focuses on wetland conservation and sustainable use.
Question-93 The Chipko Movement was started for:
A) Soil conservation
B) Wildlife protection
C) Forest conservation
D) Pollution control
Answer: C) Forest conservation
Explanation:
The Chipko Movement (1970s) was a forest conservation movement in India.
Question-94 Which of the following is an example of co-extinction?
A) Extinction of dodo leading to loss of Calvaria tree
B) Introduction of water hyacinth in India
C) Overfishing of marine species
D) Habitat fragmentation
Answer: A) Extinction of dodo leading to loss of Calvaria tree
Explanation:
Co-extinction occurs when the extinction of one species leads to the extinction of another species dependent on it .
Question-95 The Montreal Protocol aims to control:
A) Global warming
B) Deforestation
C) Ozone layer depletion
D) Air pollution
Answer: C) Ozone layer depletion
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol (1987) regulates the use of ozone-depleting substances like CFCs .
Question-96 Which vitamin functions as a coenzyme?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin D
Answer: c) Vitamin B
Explanation: B vitamins often act as coenzymes in metabolic reactions.
Question-97 Which pathway is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A) Krebs cycle
B) Glycolysis
C) Electron transport chain
D) Chemiosmosis
Answer: B) Glycolysis
Explanation:
Glycolysis occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Question-98 What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) Y-linked dominant
Answer: C) X-linked recessive
Explanation:
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder , meaning it is more common in males because they have only one X chromosome.
Question-99 Which process is responsible for the loss of water in liquid form from leaf margins?
A) Transpiration
B) Guttation
C) Diffusion
D) Osmosis
Answer: B) Guttation
Explanation:
Guttation occurs when root pressure pushes water out through hydathodes .
Question-100 Which technique is used to combine desirable traits from two different plant species?
A) Hybridization
B) Cloning
C) Mutation breeding
D) Hydroponics
Answer: A) Hybridization
Explanation:
Hybridization combines desirable traits from different plant species to create superior hybrids .