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Physics
Q.1. An open organ pipe having fundamental frequency (n) is in unison with a vibrating string. If the tube is dipped in water so that 75% of the length of the tube is inside the water then the ratio of fundamental frequency of the air column of dipped tube with that of string will be (Neglect end corrections)
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 2:3
D. 3:2
Answer :- B. 2:1
Q.2. A graph of magnetic flux (ϕ) versus current (I) is plotted for four inductors A, B, C, D. Larger value of self inductance is for inductor
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer :- A.
Q.3. An electron accelerated through a potential difference ‘V1‘ has a de-Broglie wavelength ‘λ’. When the potential is changed to ‘V2‘ its de-Broglie wavelength increases by 50%. The value of \frac{V_{1}}{V_{2}} is
A. 3:1
B. 9:4
C. 3:2
D. 4:1
Answer :-B. 9:4
Q.4. In case of a stationary wave pattern which of the following statement is CORRECT?
A. The distance between the consecutive nodes is equal to the wavelength.
B. In a pipe at both ends only even harmonics are present in an air column.
C. In a pipe closed at one end, all harmonics are present in an air column.
D. In case of a stretched string when vibrated, frequency of first overtone is same as second harmonic.
Answer :- D. In case of a stretched string when vibrated, frequency of first overtone is same as second harmonic.
Q.5. If ‘I’ is moment of inertia of a thin circular disc about an axis passing through the tangent of the disc and in the plane of disc. The moment of inertia of same circular disc about an axis perpendicular to plane and passing through its centre is
A. \frac{4I}{5}
B. \frac{2I}{5}
C. \frac{4I}{3}
D. \frac{2I}{5}
Answer :- B. \frac{2I}{5}
Q.6. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area ‘A’ and separation between plates is ‘d’. It is charged to a potential difference of V0 volt. The charging battery is then disconnected and plates are pulled apart three times the initial distance. The work done to increase the distance between the plates is (ε0= permittivity of free space)
A. \frac{3\epsilon {o}AV{o}^{2}}{d}
B. \frac{\epsilon {o}AV{o}^{2}}{2d}
C. \frac{\epsilon {o}AV{o}^{2}}{3d}
D. \frac{\epsilon {o}AV{o}^{2}}{d}
Answer :- D. \frac{\epsilon {o}AV{o}^{2}}{d}
Q.7. The shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is equal to the shortest wavelength in the Brackett series of a hydrogen like atom of atomic number z. The value of z is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer :- A. 2
Q.8. If the length of stretched string is reduced by 40% and tension is increased by 44% then the ratio of final to initial frequencies of stretched string is
A. 2:1
B. 3:2
C. 3:4
D. 1:3
Answer :- A. 2:1
Q.9. A square loop of area 25 cm2 has a resistance of 10Ω. This loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 40 T. The plane of loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done in pulling the loop out of the magnetic field slowly and uniformly in one second, will be
A. 1×10−4 J
B. 1.0 x 10−3 J
C. 5 x 10−3 J
D. 2.5 x 10−3 J
Answer :- B. 1.0×10−3 J
Q.10. Two capacitors C1=3μF and C2=2μF are connected in series across d.c. source of 100 V. The ratio of the potential across C2 to C1 is
A. 2:3
B. 3:2
C. 6:5
D. 5:6
Answer :- B. 3:2
Q.11. To obtain the truth-table shown, from the following logic circuit, the gate G should be
A. AND
B. NAND
C. OR
D. NOR
Answer :- D. NOR
Q.12. An electric dipole consisting of two opposite charges of 2×10−6C separated by a distance of 3 cm placed in an electric field of 2×105 N/C then the maximum torque acting on dipole is
A. 12 x 10-1 N-m
B. 24 x 10-3 N-m
C. 12 x 10-3 N-m
D. 24 x 10-1 N-m
Answer :- C. 12 x 10-3 N-m
Q.13. In insulators
A. valence band is empty and conduction band is filled with electrons.
B. conduction band is empty and valence band is completely filled with electrons.
C. valence band is partially filled.
D. conduction band is partially filled with electrons.
Answer :- B. conduction band is empty and valence band is completely filled with electrons.
Q.14. Seven identical discs each of mass M and radius R are arranged in a hexagonal plane pattern so as to touch each neighbour disc as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system of seven discs about an axis passing through the centre of central disc and normal to the plane of all discs is
A. \frac{7}{2}MR^{2}
B. \frac{13}{2}MR^{2}
C. \frac{29}{2}MR^{2}
D. \frac{55}{2}MR^{2}
Answer :- D
Q.15. A satellite moves in a stable circular orbit round the earth if (where VH,Vc and Ve are the horizontal velocity, critical velocity and escape velocity respectively)
A. VH<Vc
B. VH=Ve
C. VH=Vc
D. VH>Ve
Answer :- C. VH=Vc
Q.16. The mean electrical energy density between plates of a charged air capacitor is (where q = charge on capacitor, A = Area of capacitor plate)
A. \frac{q^2}{2 \varepsilon_0 A^2}
B. \frac{\mathrm{q}}{2 \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~A}^2}
C. \frac{\mathrm{q}^2}{2 \varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~A}}
D. \frac{\varepsilon_0 \mathrm{~A}}{\mathrm{q}^2}
Answer: A. \frac{q^2}{2 \varepsilon_0 A^2}
Q.17. A person is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better observation and to improve its resolving power he should
A. increase the wavelength of light.
B. increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens.
C. decrease the focal length of the eyepiece.
D. decrease the diameter of the objective lens.
Answer :- B. increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens.
Q.18. The inductive reactance of a coil is ‘XL‘. If the inductance of a coil is tripled and frequency of a.c. supply is doubled, then the new inductive reactance will be
A. \frac{2}{3} X_L
B. \frac{3}{2} X_L
C. \frac{1}{6} X_L
D. 6 \mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{L}}
Answer: D. 6 \mathrm{X}_{\mathrm{L}}
Q.19. In the circuit shown the ratio of quality factor and the bandwidth is
A. 10 s
B. 8 s
C. 6 s
D. 4 s
Answer :- A. 10 s
Q.20. Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a speed ‘V’. Internal diameter of the pipe is ‘d’. If the water is coming out at a speed ‘V1’ then the diameter of the nozzle is
A. d \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{~V}_1}{\mathrm{~V}}}
B. \mathrm{d} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}_1}}
C. \frac{d V}{V_1}
D. \frac{\mathrm{V}_1}{\mathrm{dV}}
Answer: B. \mathrm{d} \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{V}_1}}
Q.21. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation between the slits is doubled without changing other setting of the experiment to obtain same fringe width, the distance ‘D’ of the screen from slit should be made
A. \frac{\mathrm{D}}{2}
B. \frac{\mathrm{D}}{\sqrt{2}}
C. 2\mathrm{D}
D. 4\mathrm{D}
Answer: C. 2\mathrm{D}
Q.22. A body is released from the top of a tower ‘H’ metre high. It takes t second to reach the ground. The height of the body \frac{t}{2} second after release is
A. \frac{H}{2} metre from ground
B. \frac{H}{4} metre from ground
C. 3 \frac{\mathrm{H}}{4} metre from ground
D. \frac{H}{6} metre from ground
Answer: C. 3 \frac{\mathrm{H}}{4} metre from ground
Q.23. There is a second’s pendulum on the surface of earth. It is taken to the surface of planet whose mass and radius are twice that of earth. The period of oscillation of second’s pendulum on the planet will be
A. 2\sqrt{2}s
B. 2s
C. \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} s
D. \frac{1}{2} s
Answer :- A. 2\sqrt{2}s
Q.24. Two long parallel wires carrying currents 8 A and 15 A in opposite directions are placed at a distance of 7 cm from each other. A point ‘P’ is at equidistant from both the wires such that the lines joining the point to the wires are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of magnetic field at point ‘P’ is ( \sqrt{2}=1.4)(μ0= 4π×10−7 SI units)
A 68×10−6 T
B 48×10−6 T
C 32×10−6 T
D 16×10−6 T
Answer :- A. 68×10−6 T
Q.25. A body of mass 200 gram is tied to a spring of spring constant 12.5 N/m, while other end of spring is fixed at point ‘O’. If the body moves about ‘O’ in a circular path on a smooth horizontal surface with constant angular speed 5 rad/s then the ratio of extension in the spring to its natural length will be
A. 1:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:3
D. 2:5
Answer :- C. 2:3
Q.26. Which of the following is NOT involved in the formation of secondary rainbow?
A. Refraction
B. Angular dispersion
C. Interference
D. Total internal reflection
Answer :- C. Interference
Q.27. For a satellite orbiting around the earth in a circular orbit, the ratio of potential energy to kinetic energy at same height is
A. \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}
B. \frac{1}{2}
C. \sqrt{2}
D. 2
Answer: D. 2
Q.28. Maximum kinetic energy of photon is ‘E’ when wavelength of incident radiation is ‘λ’. If wavelength of incident radiations is reduced to \frac{\lambda}{3} then energy of photon becomes four times. Then work function of the metal is
A. \frac{3hc}{\lambda}
B. \frac{\mathrm{hc}}{3 \lambda}
C. \frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda}
D. \frac{\mathrm{hc}}{2 \lambda}
Answer: B. \frac{\mathrm{hc}}{3 \lambda}
Q.29. Consider the Doppler effect in two cases. In the first case, an observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed of 50 m/s. In the second case, the observer is at rest and the source moves towards the observer with the same speed of 50 m/s. Then the frequency heard by the observer will be
[velocity of sound in air =330 m/s.]
A. same in both the cases.
B. more in the second case than in the first case.
C. less in the second case than in the first case.
D. less than the actual frequency in both the cases.
Answer :- B. more in the second case than in the first case.
Q.30. According to Curie’s law in magnetism, the correct relation is ( M= magnetization in paramagnetic sample, B= applied magnetic field, T= absolute temperature of the material, C= curie’s constant)
A. M=\frac{T}{CB}
B. M=\frac{CB}{T}
C. C=\frac{MB}{T}
D. C=\frac{T^{2}}{MB}
Answer :- B
Q.31. A double convex air bubble in water behaves as
A. convergent lens
B. divergent lens
C. plane slab
D. concave mirror
Answer :- B. divergent lens
Q.32. Three liquids have same surface tension and densities ρ1,ρ2, and ρ3(ρ1>ρ2>ρ3). In three identical capillaries rise of liquid is same. The corresponding angles of contact θ1,θ2 and θ3 are related as
A. θ1>θ2>θ3
B. θ1>θ3>θ2
C. θ1<θ2<θ3
D. θ1=θ2=θ3
Answer :- C. θ1<θ2<θ3
Q.33. If a lighter body of mass ‘M1‘ and velocity ‘V1‘ and a heavy body (mass M2 and velocity V2 ) have the same kinetic energy then
A . M2V2 < M1 V1
B. M2V2=M1V1
C. M2V1 < M1V2
D. M2V2 > M1V1
Answer :- D. M2V2 > M1V1
Q.34. Electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is travelling with speed ‘v’ along a circular path of radius ‘R’, at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of intensity ‘B’. If the speed of the electron is halved and the magnetic field is doubled, the resulting path would have radius
A. 4R
B. 2R
C. \frac{R}{2}
D. \frac{R}{4}
Answer :- D. \frac{R}{4}
Q.35. In a series LR circuit, XL=R, power factor is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C with XC=XL is added to the circuit the power factor becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2 will be
A. 1:3
B. 1:2
C. 1:1
D. 1:2
Answer :- B. 1:2
Q.36. If only 1% of total current is passed through a galvanometer of resistance ‘G’ then the resistance of the shunt is
A. \frac{G}{25}\Omega
B. \frac{G}{49}\Omega
C. \frac{G}{2}\Omega
D. \frac{G}{99}\Omega
Answer :- \frac{G}{99}\Omega
Q.37. A voltmeter of resistance 150Ω connected across a cell of e.m.f. 3 V reads 2.5 V. What is the internal resistance of the cell?
A. 10Ω
B. 15Ω
C. 20Ω
D. 30Ω
Answer – D. 30Ω
Q.38. Two conducting circular loops of radii ‘R1‘ and ‘R2‘ are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1>R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to
A. \frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}
B. \frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}
C. \frac{R_{1}^{2}}{R_{2}}
D. \frac{R_{2}^{2}}{R_{1}}
Answer :- D. \frac{R_{2}^{2}}{R_{1}}
Q.39. The average force applied on the walls of a closed container depends on Tx where T is the temperature of an ideal gas. The value of ‘x’ is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer :- D. 1
Q.40. A black body radiates maximum energy at wavelength ‘λ’ and its emissive power is E. Now due to change in temperature of that body, it radiates maximum energy at wavelength \frac{2\lambda}{3} . At that temperature emissive power is
A. \frac{51E}{8}
B. \frac{81E}{16}
C. \frac{61E}{27}
D. \frac{71E}{19}
Answer :- B. \frac{81E}{16}
Q.41. A Carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes heat from a source at 600 K. To increase the efficiency to 70%, keeping the temperature of the sink same, the new temperature of the source will be
A. 360 K
B. 1000 K
C. 900 K
D. 300 K
Answer :- B. 1000 K
Q.42. The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. is 3 cm. The displacement at which its kinetic energy will be 25% more than the potential energy is
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm
Answer :- B. 2 cm
Q.43. A piece of metal at 850 K is dropped in to 1 kg water at 300 K. If the equilibrium temperature of water is 350 K then the heat capacity of the metal, expressed in JK−1 is (1 cal=4.2 J)
A. 420
B. 240
C. 100
D. No Solution
Answer :- D. No Solution
Q.44. Heat energy is incident on the surface at the rate of X J/min . If ‘a’ and ‘r’ represent coefficient of absorption and reflection respectively then the heat energy transmitted by the surface in ‘t’ minutes is
A. (a+r) xt
B. \frac{(a+r)}{xt}
C. -(a+r)xt
D. \frac{xt}{(a+r)}
Answer :- A. (a+r) xt
Q.45. Identify the mismatch out of the following.
A. Zener diode – voltage regulator.
B. Photodiode-optocouplers.
C. Solar cell – Electrical energy into light.
D. Light emitting diode – optical communication.
Answer :- C. Solar cell – Electrical energy into light.
Q.46. Two sources of light 0.6 mm apart and screen is placed at a distance of 1.2 m from them. A light of wavelength 6000Ao used. Then the phase difference between the two light waves interfering on the screen at a point at a distance 3 mm from central bright band is
A. 6π radian
B. 3π radian
C. 4π radian
D. 5π radian
Answer :- D. 5π radian
Q.47. The ratio of longest to shortest wavelength emitted in Paschen series of hydrogen atom is
A. \frac{144}{63}
B. \frac{25}{9}
C. \frac{9}{25}
D. \frac{63}{144}
Answer :- A. \frac{144}{63}
Q.48. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid ‘A’ vertically is 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid ‘B’ of surface tension and density double the values of liquid ‘A’, the height of liquid column raised in liquid ‘B’ would be (Assume angle of contact same)
A. 0.20 m
B. 0.5 m
C. 0.05 m
D 0.10 m
Answer :- C. 0.05 m
Q.49. A particle of mass ‘m’ is rotating along a circular path of radius ‘r’ having angular momentum ‘L’. The centripetal force acting on the particle is given by
A. \frac{L^{2}}{mr}
B. \frac{L^{2}}{mr^{2}}
C. \frac{mL^{2}}{r}
D. \frac{L^{2}}{mr^{3}}
Answer :- D. \frac{L^{2}}{mr^{3}}
Q.50. A sample of gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. The work done by the gas in the process is ( \frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}}=\gamma=\frac{3}{2} ) (R= gas constant )
A. TR(\sqrt{2}-2)
B. \frac{T}{R}(\sqrt{2}-2)
C. \frac{R}{T}(2-\sqrt{2})
D. RT(2-\sqrt{2})
Answer :- D. RT(2-\sqrt{2})
Chemistry
Q.1. Identify the compound with highest acidic strength from following.
A. Ethanol
B. t-Butyl alcohol
C. Phenol
D. p-Nitrophenol
Answer: D
Q.2. Which of the following species is NOT isoelectronic with neon?
A. \mathrm{O}^{2-}
B. Na
C. \mathrm{Mg}^{2+}
D. \mathrm{Al}^{3+}
Answer: B
Q.3. Conductivity of a solution is 1.26 \times 10^{-2} \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^{-1}. Calculate molar conductivity for 0.01 M solution.
A. 1.26 \times 10^3 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^2 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
B. 2.52 \times 10^3 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^2 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
C. 4.82 \times 10^3 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^2 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
D. 6.30 \times 10^3 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^2 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
Answer: A. 1.26 \times 10^3 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \mathrm{cm}^2 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
Q.4. Identify the molecule from the following that does NOT involve \mathrm{sp}^3 hybridisation.
A. \mathrm{CH}_4
B. \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2
C. \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}
D. \mathrm{NH}_3
Answer: B. \mathrm{C}_2 \mathrm{H}_2
Q.5. Which among the following compounds is hemiacetal?
Answer :- (B)
Q.6. Calculate the concentration of H+ ions in a solution if pOH is 11.
A. 10-11 M
B. 10-8 M
C. 10-6 M
D. 10-3 M
Answer :- D. 10-3 M
Q.7. Identify the name of compound
A. Sulphanilic acid
B. Sulphonic acid
C. Benzene sulphonic acid
D. Amino benzoic acid
Answer :- A. Sulphanilic acid
Q.8. Identify the physical quantity that is measured in Candela.
A. Energy
B. Work
C. Force
D. Luminous intensity
Answer: D. Luminous intensity
Q.9. Calculate the edge length of the unit cell of a metal that crystallises to a bcc structure.
(Radius of metal atom =173 \mathrm{pm})
A. 5.01 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}
B. 4.00 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}
C. 4.5 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}
D. 5.5 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}
Answer: B
Q.10. What is new temperature of a gas when its initial volume 3 \mathrm{dm}^3 at 300 K is doubled at constant pressure?
A. 450 K
B. 600 K
C. 750 K
D. 900 K
Answer: B
Q.11. Which among the following phenols does NOT correctly match with their IUPAC names?
A. Catechol: Benzene-1,2-diol
B. Resorcinol: Benzene-1,3-diol
C. o-Cresol: Benzene-1,2,3-triol
D. Quinol: Benzene-1,4-diol
Answer: C. o-Cresol: Benzene-1,2,3-triol
Q.12. Which among the following statements is NOT true according to principles of green chemistry?
A. In a chemical synthesis the waste product should be zero or minimum.
B. Good atom economy means very few atoms of reactants are incorporated in the product.
C. Only small amounts of unwanted by products are formed.
D. Use of lindane is better than DDT.
Answer: B. Good atom economy means very few atoms of reactants are incorporated in the product.
Q.13. What is the value of effective atomic number of cobalt in \left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right]^{3+} complex if \mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{Z}=27) ?
A. 30
B. 32
C. 35
D. 36
Answer: D. 36
Q.14. For the reaction, 3 \mathrm{I}+\mathrm{S}_2 \mathrm{O}_8^{2-} \rightarrow \mathrm{I}_3^{-}+2 \mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}, at a particular time \mathrm{t}, \frac{\mathrm{d}\left[\mathrm{SO}_4^{2-}\right]}{\mathrm{dt}} is 2.2 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{dm}^{-3} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}. What is the value of -\frac{\mathrm{d}\left[\mathrm{I}^{-}\right]}{\mathrm{dt}} ?
A. 1.1 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{dm}^{-3} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}
B. 3.3 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{dm}^{-3} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}
C. 4.4 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{dm}^{-3} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}
D. 6.6 x 10-2 mol dm-3 s-1
Answer:- B. 3.3 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{dm}^{-3} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}
Q.15. What is the total number of Bravais lattices present for different crystal systems?
A. 14
B. 7
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: A. 14
Q.16. Identify the compund Y in the following reaction .
C_{2}H_{5}Cl + Y\overset{\Delta }{\rightarrow}C_{2}H_{5}CNA. NH3
B. HNO3
C. KCN(alc)
D. AgCN(alc)
Answer :- C. KCN(alc)
Q.17. Anniline is treated with NaNO2 + HCl at low temperature to form :
Answer :- D.
Q.18. Which of the following is NOT a difficulty in setting SHE?
A. To obtain pure hydrogen gas
B. To obtain dry hydrogen gas
C. To maintain exactly 1 atm pressure
D. To bring the reaction in reverse direction
Answer: D. To bring the reaction in reverse direction
Q.19. Lewis acid is a substance that
A. gives H+ ions aqueous solution
B. accepts a proton
C. accepts electron pair
D. donates a proton
Answer: C. accepts electron pair
Q.20. Which among the following \alpha-amino acids does NOT have a chiral carbon atom?
A. Histidine
B. Glutamic acid
C. Serine
D. Glycine
Answer: D. Glycine
Q.21. The difference between △H and △U is usually significant for systems consisting of :
A. only solids
B. only gases
C. only liquids
D. both solids and liquids
Answer: B. only gases
Q.22. Which of the following elements is doped with to obtain fibre amplifiers for optical fibre communication system ?
A. Zn
B. Cu
C. Er
D. La
Answer :- C. Er
Q.23. What is the half life of a first order reaction if rate constant is 4.2 x 10-2 per day ?
A. 5.0 day
B. 16.5 day
C. 28.0 day
D. 9.0 day
Answer :- B. 16.5 day
Q.24. What type of solution is the ethyl alcohol in water?
A. Liquid in solid
B. Solid in liquid
C. Liquid in liquid
D. Gas in liquid
Answer: C. Liquid in liquid
Q.25. Which among the following colours is obtained in Schiff test of aldehydes?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Magenta
D. Black
Answer: C. Magenta
Q.26. Which from following monomers is used to prepare thermocol?
A. Bisphenol and acrylamide
B. Acrylamide
C. Butadiene
D. Styrene
Answer: D. Styrene
Q.27. Which of the following is character of lyophilic colloid?
A. Particles of dispersed phase have no affinity for dispersion medium.
B. Particles easily detected under ultramicroscope.
C. Addition of large amount of electrolyte causes precipitation.
D. These are irreversible colloids.
Answer: C.Addition of large amount of electrolyte causes precipitation.
Q.28. Find the depression in freezing point of solution when 3.2 gram non volatile solute with molar mass 128 \mathrm{gram} \mathrm{mol}^{-1} is dissolved in 80 gram solvent if cryoscopic constant of solvent is 4.8 \mathrm{~K} \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}.
A. 3.0 K
B. 1.5 K
C. 2.0 K
D. 2.5 K
Answer: B. 1.5 K
Q.29. What is the value of x in order to balance following redox reaction?
\mathrm{Mn}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+} + x \mathrm{ClO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{MnO}_{2(\mathrm{~s})} + x \mathrm{ClO}_{2(\mathrm{aq})}A. x=1
B. x=2
C. x=3
D. x=4
Answer: B) x=2
Q.30. The reaction, 3 \mathrm{ClO}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{ClO}_3^{-} + 2 \mathrm{Cl}^{-} occurs in two steps:
i. 2 \mathrm{ClO}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{ClO}_2^{-} + \mathrm{Cl}^{-}
ii. \mathrm{ClO}_2^{-} + \mathrm{ClO}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{ClO}_3^{-} + \mathrm{Cl}^{-}
The reaction intermediate is:
A. \mathrm{Cl}^{-}
B. \mathrm{ClO}_2^{-}
C. \mathrm{ClO}_3^{-}
D. \mathrm{ClO}^{-}
Answer :- B. \mathrm{ClO}_2^{-}
Q.31 Acetic acid dissociates to 1.20 \% in its 0.01 \, \mathrm{M} solution. What is the value of its dissociation constant?
A. 2.20 \times 10^{-2}
B. 1.60 \times 10^{-4}
C. 1.44 \times 10^{-6}
D. 2.40 \times 10^{-4}
Answer: C. 1.44 \times 10^{-6}
Q.32. The structure of functional group od secondary amide is :
A. -NH-
B)
C)
D)
Answer :- C.
Q.33. Which of the following solutions exhibits lowest value of boiling point elevation assuming complete dissociation?
A. 0.1 m AlCl3
B. 0.01 m MgCl2
C. 1 m KCl
D. 0.5 m NaCl
Answer :- B. 0.01 m MgCl2
Q.34. Identify heteroleptic complex from following.
A. Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
B. Hexaamminecobalt (III) bromide
C. Potassium tetrahydroxozincate (II)
D. Tetracarbonyl nickel (0)
Answer :- (A) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
Q.35. Which among the following statements of group-1 elements is NOT true?
A. Unipositive ions have inert gas configuration.
B. Compounds of unipositive ions are paramagnetic.
C. These form colourless compounds in +1 state.
D. These have high negative values of standard reduction potential.
Answer: B. Compounds of unipositive ions are paramagnetic.
Q.36. Identify glycosidic linkage present in lactose.
A. \beta-1,2
B. \alpha-1,4
C. \beta-1,4
D. \beta-1,6
Answer: C. \beta-1,4
Q.37. Which of the following compounds reacts with HBr to form 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane?
Answer :- C.
Q.38. Identify degenerate orbitals from following for hydrogen atom.
A. 1s and 2s
B. 1s and 2p
C. 2s an 2p
D. 3s and 2p
Answer :- C. 2s and 2p
Q.39. Identify the product \mathbf{P} obtained in the following reaction:
Benzene + ozone (excess) \xrightarrow{\mathrm{CCl}_4}
Benzene triozonide \xrightarrow{\mathrm{Zn} / \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}} \mathrm{P} + \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_2
A. Benzoic acid
B. Benzaldehyde
C. Phenol
D. Glyoxal
Answer: D
Q.40. Identify strongest oxoacid of halogen from following.
A. Hypochlorous acid
B. Chlorous acid
C. Chloric acid
D. Perchloric acid
Answer :- D. Perchloric acid
Q.41. Identify the reagent \mathrm{R} used in the reaction stated below.
Benzene diazonium chloride +\mathrm{R} \rightarrow Benzene
A. HCl
B. \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_2 / \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}
C. \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} / \mathrm{HCl}
D. \mathrm{CH}_3-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{OH}
Answer: B. \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{PO}_2 / \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}
Q.42. Identify the lanthanoid element from the following.
A. Eu
B. Cm
C. Am
D. Np
Answer: A. Eu
Q.43. What is the change in internal energy when the system releases 8 kJ of heat and performs 660 J of work on the surroundings?
A. -7340 J
B. -5400 J
C. -8660 J
D. -1212 J
Answer: C. -8660 J
Q.44. Identify the method used to obtain \mathrm{SO}_2 gas in industry.
A. By burning sulphur in air
B. By treating sodium sulphite with dilute sulphuric acid
C. By treating sodium sulphite with dilute hydrochloric acid
D. By roasting zinc sulphide and iron pyrites
Answer: D. By roasting zinc sulphide and iron pyrites
Q.45. Which among the following compounds reacts fastest with HBr?
Answer :- D
Q.46. Identify biodegradable polymer from following.
A. Nylon 2-nylon 6
B. Terylene
C. Nylon 6
D. Nylon 6,6
Answer: A. Nylon 2 – nylon 6
Q.47. What mass of \mathrm{Mg} is produced during the electrolysis of molten \mathrm{MgCl}_2 by passing 2 amp current for 482.5 seconds?
(Molar mass \mathrm{Mg} = 24 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1})
A. 0.12 g
B. 0.24 g
C. 1.2 g
D. 0.4 g
Answer: A. 0.12 g
Q.48. Calculate the final volume when 2 moles of an ideal gas expand from 3 \, \mathrm{dm}^3 at constant external pressure 1.6 bar, and the work done in the process is 800 J.
A. 2.66 \, \mathrm{dm}^3
B. 4.8 \, \mathrm{dm}^3
C. 5.0 \, \mathrm{dm}^3
D. 8.0 \, \mathrm{dm}^3
Answer: D
Q.49. Calculate the molar mass of an element with density 2.7 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{cm}^{-3} that forms an fcc structure.
\left[\mathrm{a}^3 \cdot \mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}} = 40 \, \mathrm{cm}^3 \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}\right]A. 112 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
B. 54 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
C. 27 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
D. 78 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
Answer: C. 27 \, \mathrm{g} \, \mathrm{mol}^{-1}
Q.50. Identify ketone from the following.
A. Ethyl ethanoate
B. Acetophenone
C. N-Methylphthalimide
D. Methyl salicylate
Answer: B. Acetophenone