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Physics
Q.1. A glass prism deviates the red and violet rays through 9∘ and 11∘ respectively. A second prism of equal angle deviates them through 11∘ and 13∘ respectively. The ratio of dispersive power of second prism to first prism is
A. 5 : 6
B. 6 : 5
C. 9 : 13
D. 13 : 9
Answer :- A. 5 : 6
Q.2. Eight small drops of mercury each of radius ‘r’, coalesce to form a large single drop. The ratio of total surface energy before and after the change is
A. 2 : 1
B. 1 : 1
C. 1 : 4
D. 1 : 8
Answer :- A. 2 : 1
Q.3. In the following digital logic circuit, the output Y will be ‘1’ for inputs
A. A=0, B=0
B. A=0, B=1
C. A=1, B=0
D. A=1, B=1
Answer :- D. A=1, B=1
Q.4. Two different radioactive elements with half lives ‘T1‘ and ‘T2‘ have undecayed atoms ‘N1‘ and ‘N2‘ respectively present at a given instant. The ratio of their activities at that instant is
A. \frac{N_{1}T_{1}}{N_{2}T_{2}}
B. \frac{N_{2}T_{1}}{N_{2}T_{2}}
C. \frac{N_{1}T_{2}}{N_{2}T_{1}}
D. \frac{N_{1}N_{2}}{T_{1}T_{2}}
Answer :- C. \frac{N_{1}T_{2}}{N_{2}T_{1}}
Q.5. The equation of wave motion is Y = 5sin(10πt−0.02πx+π/3) where x is in metre and t in second. The velocity of the wave is
A. 300 m/s
B. 400 m/s
C. 500 m/s
D. 600 m/s
Answer :- C. 500 m/s
Q.6. A potentiometer wire of length 4 m and resistance 5 Ω is connected in series with a resistance of 992 Ω and a cell of e.m.f. 4 V with internal resistance 3 Ω. The length of 0.75 m on potentiometer wire balances the e.m.f. of
A. 4.00 mV
B. 3.75 mV
C. 3.00 mV
D. 2.50 mV
Answer :- B
Q.7. Select the correct statement from the following.
A. Gravitational force is stronger than electrostatic force
B. Gravitational as well as electrostatic force always attractive.
C. Gravitational as well as electrostatic force always act along the line joining the two objects.
D. Inverse square law (F∝ \frac{1}{r^{2}}) is not obeyed by electrostatic force.
Answer :- C. Gravitational as well as electrostatic force always act along the line joining the two objects.
Q.8. End correction at open end for air column in a pipe of length ‘l’ is ‘e’. For its second overtone of an open pipe, the wavelength of the wave is
A. \frac{2(l+e)}{3}
B. \frac{2(l+2e)}{3}
C. \frac{4(l+e)}{5}
D. \frac{4(l+2e)}{5}
Answer :-B. \frac{2(l+2e)}{3}
Q.9. In a stationary lift, time period of a simple pendulum is ‘T’. The lift starts accelerating downwards with acceleration ( \frac{g}{4} ), then the time period of the pendulum will be
A. \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}T
B. \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}T
C. \frac{3}{4}T
D. \frac{4}{3}T
Answer :- B. \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}T
Q.10. A body is projected vertically upwards from earth’s surface of radius ‘ R’ with velocity equal to \frac{1^{\text {rd }}}{3} of escape velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is
A. \frac{R}{8}
B. \frac{\mathrm{R}}{6}
C. \frac{\mathrm{R}}{4}
D. \frac{R}{9}
Answer :- A
Q.11. Which one of the following statements is WRONG regarding LED?
A. LEDs are energy efficient
B. LEDs have long time if properly manufactured.
C. Brightness of light emitted by LED cannot be controlled.
D. Colours produced by LED do not fade out.
Answer :- C.Brightness of light emitted by LED cannot be controlled.
Q.12. A thin wire of length ‘L’ and uniform linear mass density ‘m’ is bent into a circular coil. The moment of inertia of this coil about tangential axis and in plane of the coil is
A. \frac{3mL^{2}}{5\pi ^{2}}
B . \frac{3mL^{3}}{8\pi ^{2}}
C. \frac{3mL^{3}}{4\pi ^{2}}
D. \frac{3mL^{2}}{7\pi ^{2}}
Answer – B . \frac{3mL^{3}}{8\pi ^{2}}
Q.13. A black body radiates maximum energy at wavelength ‘λ’ and its emissive power is ‘E’. Now due to a change in temperature of that body, it radiates maximum energy at wavelength \frac{\lambda}{3}. At that temperature emissive power is
A. 16:1
B. 256:1
C. 81:1
D. 128:1
Answer :- C. 81:1
Q.14. If the charge on the capacitor is increased by 3 coulombs, the energy stored in it increases by 44%. The original charge on the capacitor iis
A. 10 C
B. 15 C
C. 20 C
D. 25 C
Answer :- B. 15 C
Q.15. In which figure, the junction diode is forward biased?
Answer :- B)
Q.16. A particle starts from mean position and performs S.H.M. with period 4 second. At what time its kinetic energy is 50% of total energy?
(cos45∘= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})
A. 0.1 s
B. 0.2 s
C. 0.4 s
D. 0.5 s
Answer :- D. 0.5 s
Q.17. For polyatomic gases, the ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure to constant volume is ( f= degrees of freedom)
A. \frac{2+f}{3+f}
B. \frac{3+f}{2+f}
C. \frac{3+f}{4+f}
D. \frac{4+f}{3+f}
Answer :- D. \frac{4+f}{3+f}
Q.18. A particle is moving in a circle with uniform speed ‘v’. In moving from a point to another diametrically opposite point
A. the momentum changes by mv
B. the momentum changes by 2 mv
C. the kinetic energy changes by \frac{1}{2} mv^{2}
D. the kinetic energy changes by mv2
Answer :- B
Q.19. Select the WRONG statement from the following. For an isothermal process
A. Energy exchanged is used to do work
B. Perfect thermal equilibrium with environment
C. Equation of state PV is not constant.
D. No change internal energy.
Answer :- C. Equation of state PV is not constant.
Q.20. Two concentric circular coils of 10 turns each are situated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40 cm and they carry respectively 0.2 A and 0.3 A current in opposite direction. The magnetic field at the centre is (μ0=4π×10−7 SI units)
A. 4π×10−7 T
B. 5π×10−7 T
C. 2π×10−5 T
D. 7π×10−6 T
Answer :- B. 5π×10−7 T
Q.21. Graph shows the variation of de-Broglie wavelength (λ) versus \frac{1}{\sqrt{V}} where ‘V’ is the accelerating potential for four particles A, B, C, D carrying same charge but of masses m1,m2,m3,m4. Which on represents a particle of largest mass?
A. m1
B. m2
C. m3
D. m4
Answer :- A. m1
Q.22. SI units of self inductance is
A. \frac{V-A}{S}
B. \frac{V}{A-S}
C. \frac{V-S}{A}
D. \frac{A}{V-S}
Answer :- C. \frac{V-S}{A}
Q.23. When an inductor ‘L’ and a resistor ‘R’ in series are connected across a 15 V,50 Hz a.c. supply, a current of 0.3 A flows in the circuit. The current differs in phase from applied voltage by ( \frac{\pi}{3})^c. The value of ‘R’ is \left ( sin\frac{\pi }{6}=cos\; \frac{\pi }{3}=\frac{1}{2}, sin\; \frac{\pi }{3}=cos\frac{\pi }{6}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right )
A. 10Ω
B 15Ω
C. 20Ω
D. 25Ω
Answer :- D. 25Ω
Q.24. When an electron is accelerated through a potential ‘V’, the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it is ‘4λ’. When the accelerating potential is increased to 4 V, its wavelength will be
A. \frac{\lambda }{4}
B. \frac{\lambda }{2}
C. λ
D. 2λ
Answer :- D. 2λ
Q.25. Compare the rate of loss of heat from a metal sphere at 627∘C with the rate of loss of heat from the same sphere at 327∘C, if the temperature of the surrounding is 27∘C. (nearly)
A. 6.2
B. 5.3
C. 4.8
D. 7.4
Answer :- B. 5.3
Q.26. In Balmer series, wavelength of the nd 2nd line is ‘λ1‘ and for Paschen series, wavelength of the 1st line is ‘λ2‘, then the ratio ‘λ1‘ to ‘λ2‘ is
A. 5:128
B. 5:81
C. 7:27
D. 9:132
Answer :- C. 7:27
Q.27. A coil of ‘n’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’. It is unwound and rewound again to make another coil of radius ( \frac{R}{3}), current remaining the same. The ratio of magnetic moment of the new coil to that of original coil is
A. 3:1
B. 1:3
C. 9:1
D. 1:9
Answer :- B. 1:3
Q.28. An ink mark is made on a piece of paper on which a glass slab of thickness ‘t’ is placed. The ink mark appears to be raised up through a distance ‘x’ when viewed at nearly normal incidence. If the refractive index of the material of glass slab is ‘μ’ then the thickness of glass slab is given by
A. \frac{\mu x}{\mu -1}
B. \frac{\mu-1 }{\mu }
C. \frac{\mu -1}{\mu x}
D. \frac{\mu }{(\mu -1)x}
Answer :- A. \frac{\mu x}{\mu -1}
Q.29. A spherical metal ball of radius ‘r’ falls through viscous liquid with velocity ‘V’. Another metal ball of same material but of radius ( \frac{r}{3}) falls through same liquid, then its terminal velocity will be
A. \frac{V}{3}
B. \frac{V}{4}
C. \frac{V}{6}
D. \frac{V}{9}
Answer :- D. \frac{V}{9}
Q.30. A body of mass ‘m’ attached at the end of a string is just completing the loop in a vertical circle. The apparent weight of the body at the lowest point in its path is ( g = gravitational acceleration)
A. zero
B. mg
C. 3 mg
D. 6 mg
Answer :- D. 6 mg
Q.31. Select the WRONG statement from the following. In a streamline flow
A. velocity of a fluid at a given point is never constant.
B. velocity is smaller than critical velocity.
C. layers are always parallel.
D. the particles do not move in random direction
Answer :- A. velocity of a fluid at a given point is never constant.
Q.32. Two point charges ‘q1‘ and ‘q2‘ are separated by a distance ‘d’. What is the increase in potential energy of the system when ‘q2‘ is moved towards ‘q1‘ by a distance ‘x’ ? (x<d)( \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon _{o}}= K , constant)
A. -\frac{Kq_{1}q_{2}x}{d(d-x)}
B. -\frac{Kq_{1}q_{2}}{d(d-x)}
C. \frac{Kq_{1}q_{2x}}{d^{2}-x^{2})}
D. \frac{Kq_{1}q_{2}x}{d^{2}-x^{2})}
Answer :- A. -\frac{Kq_{1}q_{2}x}{d(d-x)}
Q.33. The ratio of intensities of two points on a screen in Young’s double slit experiment when waves from the two slits have a path difference of \frac{\lambda}{4} and \frac{\lambda}{6} is
(cos 90∘=0,cos 60∘=0.5)
A. 2:1
B. 2:3
C. 3:4
D. 3:5
Answer :- B. 2:3
Q.34. A simple pendulum is oscillating with frequency ‘F’ on the surface of the earth. It is taken to a depth \frac{R}{3} below the surface of earth. ( R= radius of earth). The frequency of oscillation at depth R/3 is
A. \frac{2F}{3}
B. \frac{F}{\sqrt{1.5}}
C. F
D. \frac{F}{3}
Answer :- B. \frac{F}{\sqrt{1.5}}
Q.35. An a.c. source of 15 V,50 Hz is connected across an inductor (L) and resistance (R) in series R.M.S. current of 0.5 A flows in the circuit. The phase difference between applied voltage and current is \frac{\pi}{3} ) radian. The value of resistance (R) is (tan60∘= \sqrt{3})
A. 10Ω
B. 12Ω
C. 15Ω
D. 20Ω
Answer :- C. 15Ω
Q.36. A ball is projected vertically upwards from ground. It reaches a height ‘h’ in time t1, continues its motion and then takes a time t2 to reach ground. The height h in terms of g,t1 and t2 is (g= acceleration due to gravity)
A. \frac{1}{2}\frac{gt_{1}}{t_{2}}
B. \frac{1}{2}gt_{1}t_{2}
C. gt1t2
D. 2gt1t2
Answer :- B. \frac{1}{2}gt_{1}t_{2}
Q.37. The volume of a metal block increases by 0.225% when its temperature is increased by 30∘C. Hence coefficient of linear expansion of the material of metal block is
A. 7.5×10−5/∘C
B. 6.75×10−5/∘C
C. 2.5×10−5/∘C
D. 1.5×10−5/∘C
Answer :- C. 2.5×10−5/∘C
Q.38. A tuning fork gives 3 beats with 50 cm length of sonometer wire. If the length of the wire is shortened by 1 cm, the number of beats is still the same. The frequency of the fork is
A. 256 Hz
B. 288 Hz
C. 297 Hz
D. 320 Hz
Answer :- C. 297 Hz
Q.39. The depth at which acceleration due to gravity becomes \frac{g}{2} is (R= radius of earth, g= acceleration due to gravity on earth’s surface, n is integer)
A. \frac{R(1-2n)}{n}
B. \frac{R(1-n)}{2n}
C. \frac{R(n-1)}{n}
D. \frac{R(2n-1)}{2n}
Answer :- D. \frac{R(2n-1)}{2n}
Q.40. Two resistance X and Y are connected in the two gaps of a meterbridge and the null points is obtained at 20 cm from zero end. When the resistance of 20Ω is connected in series with the smaller of the two resistance X and Y, the null point shifts to 40 cm from left end. The value of smaller resistance in ohm is
A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
Answer :- C. 12
Q.41. Three point charges +Q,+2q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle. The net electrostatic potential energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to
A. -\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3} q
B. +\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3} q
C. -\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} q
D. +\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}} q
Answer: A. -\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3} q
Q.42. Resistor of 2Ω, inductor of 100μH and capacitor of 400pF are connected in series across a source of erms=0.1 Volt. At resonance, voltage drop across inductor is
A. 25 V
B. 2.5 V
C. 250 V
D. 20 V
Answer :- A. 25 V
Q.43. An electron makes a full rotation in a circle of radius 0.8 m in one second. The magnetic field at the centre of the circle is (μ0= 4π×10−7 SI units)
A. 4π×10−26 T
B. 2π×10−26 T
C. 4π×10−19 T
D. 2π×10−19 T
Answer :- A. 4π×10−26 T
Q.44. In Young’s double slit experiment when a glass plate of refractive index 1.44 is introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams, the fringes are displaced by a distance ‘y’. If this plate is replaced by another plate of same thickness but of refractive index 1.66, the fringes will be displaced by a distance
A. \frac{3y}{2}
B. \frac{2y}{3}
C. \frac{5y}{4}
D. \frac{4y}{5}
Answer :- A. \frac{3y}{2}
Q.45. A monoatomic ideal gas initially at temperature ‘T1‘ is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with massless, frictionless piston. By releasing the piston suddenly the gas is allowed to expand to adiabatically to a temperature ‘T2‘. If ‘L1‘ and ‘L2‘ are the lengths of the gas columns before and after expansion respectively, then \frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}} is
A. \frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}
B. \frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}
C. \left ( \frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\right )^{2/3}
D. \left ( \frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\right )^{2/3}
Answer :- C
Q.46. A tuning fork of frequency 220 Hz produces sound waves of wavelength 1.5 m in air at N.T.P. The increase in wavelength when the temperature of air is 27∘C is nearly [atex] \left ( \sqrt{\frac{300}{273}}=1.05 \right )[/katex]
A. 0.06 m
B. 0.10 m
C. 0.09 m
D. 0.07 m
Answer:- D. 0.07 m
Q.47. An air craft of wing span 40 m files horizontally in earth’s magnetic field 5×10−5 T at a speed of 500 m/s. The e.m.f. generated between the tips of the wings of the air craft is
A. 0.5 V
B. 1 V
C. 1.2 V
D. 1.5 V
Answer :- B. 1 V
Q.48. In th Pth second, a particle describes angular displacement of ‘β’ rad. If it starts from rest, the angular acceleration is
A . \frac{\beta}{P}
B. \frac{\beta}{(\mathrm{P} - 1)}
C. \frac{2\beta}{(2\mathrm{P} - 1)}
D. \frac{(2\beta + 1)}{(2\mathrm{P} - 1)}
Answer: C. \frac{2\beta}{(2\mathrm{P} - 1)}
Q.49. Inductance per unit length near the middle of a long solenoid is (μ0= permeability of free space, n= number of turns per unit length, d= the diameter of the solenoid)
A. \mu_0 \pi \left(\frac{\mathrm{nd}}{2}\right)^2
B. 4 \mu_0 \pi \left(\frac{\mathrm{nd}}{2}\right)
C. \left(\frac{\mu_0 \pi n d}{2}\right)
D. \frac{4 \mu_0 \pi}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mathrm{~d}^2}
Answer :- A. \mu_0 \pi \left(\frac{\mathrm{nd}}{2}\right)^2
Q.50. One of the slits in Young’s double slit experiment is covered with a transparent sheet of thickness 2.9×10−3 cm. The central fringe shifts to a position originally occupied by the th 25th bright fringe. If λ=5800 Ao, the refractive index of the sheet is
A. 1.65
B. 1.60
C. 1.55
D. 1.50
Answer :- D. 1.50
Chemistry
Q.1. Which of the following expressions represents molar conductivity of AB3 type electrolyte?
A. 3λA∘⋯+λB∘
B. λA∘⋯+λB∘
C. λA∘⋯+3λB∘
D. 2λA∘⋯+λB∘
Answer :- C. λA∘⋯+3λB∘
Q.2. What is the mass of KClO3( s) required to liberate 22. 4 dm3 oxygen at STP during thermal decomposition?
( Molar Mass of KClO3( s)=122.5 g/mol)
A.122.5 g
B. 81.67 g
C. 10.25 g
D.8.16 g
Answer :- B. 81.67 g
Q.3. Identify product B in the following reaction.
Aniline\xrightarrow[{273\;K}]{NaNO_2}A\;\;\xrightarrow[\triangle]{H_2O}B+N_2\uparrowA. Chlorobenzene
B. Benzyl alcohol
C. Benzenediazoniumchloride
D. Phenol
Answer :- D. Phenol
Q.4. If 0.15 m aqueous solution of KCI freezes at −0.511∘C, calculate van’t Hoff factor of KCI (cryoscopic constant of water is 1.86 K kg mol−1)
A. 1.45
B. 1.26
C. 1.82
D. 3.00
Answer :- C. 1.82
Q.5. Which among the following is NOT the feature of reversible process?
A. The driving and opposing forces differ by large amount.
B. The process can be reversed by infinitesimal change in pressure.
C. A reversible process proceeds very slowly.
D. The system attains mechanical equilibrium at the end of every step.
Answer :- A. The driving and opposing forces differ by large amount.
Q.6. Which from following functional groups is at the lowest order to decide principal functional group in polyfunctional compound?
A. −COOR
B. −COCI
C. >C=0
D. −CONH2
Answer :- C. >C=0
Q.7. Calculate the Ecell for Zn(s)|Zn(0.1M)++||Cr(0.1M)+++|Cr(s) at 25∘C if cell Eocell is 0.02 V
A. −0.05 V
B. 0.03 V
C. −0.06 V
D. 0.07 V
Answer :- B. 0.03 V
Q.8. Which from following formulae is of galena?
A. CaSO4⋅2H2O
B. PbS
C. ZnS
D. BaSO4
Answer :- B. PbS
Q.9. What is the solubility of AgCl(s) if its solubility product is 1.6×10−10 ?
A. 1.26×10−5M
B. 1.00×10−9M
C. 2.6×10−5M
D. 1.56×10−9M
Answer :- A. 1.26×10−5M
Q.10. Which from following nanoparticle catalysts is used in photocatalysis?
A. TiO2
B. Pd
C. Pt
D. Au
Answer :- A. TiO2
Q.11. A gas absorbs 150 J heat and expands by 300 cm3 against a constant external pressure 2×105 N m−2, What is ΔU of the system?
A. 210 J
B. 90 J
C. 450 J
D. −300 J
Answer :- B. 90 J
Q.12. A first order reaction takes 23.03 minutes for 20% decomposition. Calculate its rate constant.
A. 5.6×10−3 minute−1
B. 4.5×10−3 minute−1
C. 6.5×10−3 minute−1
D. 9.69×10−3 minute−1
Answer :- D. 9.69×10−3 minute−1
Q.13. Which among the following is dicarboxylic acid?
A. Valeric acid
B. Caproic acid
C. Glutaric acid
D. Butyric acid
Answer :- C. Glutaric acid
Q.14. Which from following elements belongs to group 17 of periodic table?
A. At
B. Zn
C. As
D. Te
Answer :- A. At
Q.15. What is the number of moles of donor atoms in n mole of NO2− ?
A. 3n
B.0
C. 2n
D. n
Answer :- C. 2n
Q.16. Calculate the density of an element having molar mass 27 g mol−1 that forms fcc unit cell. [a3⋅NA=38.5 cm3 mol−1]
A 2.8 g cm−3
B 3.5 g cm−3
C 2.1 g cm−3
D 4.1 g cm−3
Answer :- A 2.8 g cm−3
Q.17. Which of the following is not a globular protein?
A. Myosin
B. Insulin
C. Legumelin
D. Serum albumin
Answer :- A. Myosin
Q.18. Crotonyl alcohol is an example of
A. Allylic alcohol
B. Benzylic alcohol
C. Vinylic alcohol
D. Polyhydric alcohol
Answer :- A. Allylic alcohol
Q.19 What type of following solids the ice is
A. ionic solid
B. covalent network solid
C. molecular solid
D. metallic solid
Answer :- C. molecular solid
Q.20. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing 0.01 M weak acid and 0.05 M solution of a salt of weak acid and strong base. What is the pH of buffer solution? (pKa=4.74)
A. 3.34
B. 4.80
C. 5.44
D. 6.93
Answer :- C. 5.44
Q.21. Which of the following gases is formed during oxidation of trichloromethane?
A. CO(g)
B. CO2( g)
C. COCl2( g)
D . H2( g)
Answer :- C. COCl2( g)
Q.22. What type of ligand the EDTA is?
A. Monodentate
B. Bidentate
C. Tetradentate
D. Hexadentate
Answer :- D. Hexadentate
Q.23. Which of the following compounds has difficulty in breaking of C−X bond during nucleophilic substitution reaction?
A. o-Nitrochlorobenzene
B. p-Nitrochlorobenzene
C. m-Nitrochlorobenzene
D. 2,4,6-Trinitrochlorobenzene
Answer :- C. m-Nitrochlorobenzene
Q.24. What is the change in oxidation number of Cr in the following redox reaction?
3H2O2(aq)+Cr2O7 (aq) 2−+ 8H+(aq)⟶3O2( g)+2Cr3+7H2O
A. +2 to +3
B. -2 to +3
C. +7 to +3
D. +6 to +3
Answer :- D. +6 to +3
Q.25. Equal masses of H2( g) and He(g) are enclosed in a container at constant temperature. The ratio of partial pressure of H2 to He is
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 1:4
Answer :- C. 2:1
Q.26. Identify the reaction intermediate of following reaction.
A. O2(g)
B. NO(g)
C. SO2(g)
D. O2(g)
Answer :- B. NO(g)
Q.27. What is the number of −OH groups present in one molecule of ribose?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer :- C. 4
Q.28. What is the position of copper in long form of periodic table?
A. Group -12, period-3
B. Group-11, period-4
C. Group-8, period-4
D. Group-11, period-5
Answer :- B. Group-11, period-4
Q.29. What is bond order of F2 molecule?
A. \frac{1}{2}
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer :- B. 1
Q.30. Which of the following compounds does NOT develop intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
A. Cyclohexylamine
B. Allylamine
C. Trimethylamine
D. Diphenylamine
Answer :- C. Trimethylamine
Q.31. Which of the following is CORRECT IUPAC name of catechol?
A. Benzene-1,2-diol
B. Benzene-1,3-diol
C. Benzene-1,4-diol
D. Benzene-1,3,5 triol
Answer :- A. Benzene-1,2-diol
Q.32. What is the solubility of gas in water at 25∘C if partial pressure is 0.346 bar [Henry’s law constant is [0.159 mol dm−3 bar−1] ?
A 0.055 mol dm−3
B 0.028 mol dm−3
C 0.083 mol dm−3
D 0.11 mol dm−3
Answer :- A 0.055 mol dm−3
Q.33. Which from following coloured light has the highest energy?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Violet
Answer :- D. Violet
Q.34. Which among the following is haloalkyne?
A. CH3−CH2−CH=CH−X
B. CH3−C=C−CH2−X
C. CH≡C−CH2−CH2−X
D. CH3−CH2−C≡C−X
Answer :- D. CH3−CH2−C≡C−X
Q.35. Which element from the following possesses half-filled d-orbitals either in expected or in observed electronic configuration?
A. Fe
B. Mn
C. Ni
D. Co
Answer :- B. Mn
Q.36. What is the radius of the fourth orbit of hydrogen atom?
A. 846.4 pm
B. 211.6 pm
C. 476.1 pm
D. 1322.5 pm
Answer :- A. 846.4 pm
Q.37. A conductivity cell containing 5×10−4 M NaCl solution develops resistance 14000 ohms at 25∘C. Calculate the conductivity of solution if the cell constant is 0.84 cm−1
A . 6.0×10−5Ω−1 cm−1
B. 3.0×10−5Ω−1 cm−1
C. 9.0×10−5Ω−1 cm−1
D. 12.0×10−5Ω−1 cm−1
Answer :- A . 6.0×10−5Ω−1 cm−1
Q.38. Which among the following statements is NOT true for LDP?
A. It needs O2 or peroxide as initiator synthesis process.
B. It is a branched chain polymer.
C. It needs low pressure about 6-7 atm in synthesis process.
D. It has low melting point than HDP.
Answer :- C. It needs low pressure about 6-7 atm in synthesis process.
Q.39. Equal masses in grams of H2, N2,Cl2, and O2, are enclosed in cylinders separately. If these gases expand isothermally and reversibly by 10 dm3 at 300 K, the work done by gas is maximum for
A. H2
B. N2
C. Cl2
D. O2
Answer :- A. H2
Q.40. Which of the following compounds is obtained by Rosenmund reduction of benzoyl chloride?
A. Benzene
B. Benzyl alcohol
C. Benzaldehyde
D. Chlorobenzene
Answer :- C. Benzaldehyde
Q.41. The partial vapour pressure of any volatile component of a solution is equal to the vapour pressure of the pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the solution is called
A. Dalton’s law
B. Avogadro’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Henry’s law
Answer :- C. Raoult’s law
Q.42. Which from following polymers is grouped in the category of elastomers?
A. Neoprene
B. Terylene
C. Polystyrene
D. Bakelite
Answer :- A. Neoprene
Q.43. Which among the following is NOT an example of salt of strong acid and weak base?
A. NH4Cl
B. NH4NO3
C. CuSO4
D. Na2SO4
Answer :- D. Na2SO4
Q.44. Calculate the edge length of simple cubic unit cell if radius of an atom is 167.3 pm.
A. 473.2 pm
B. 334.6 pm
C. 386.3 pm
D. 836.5 pm
Answer :- B. 334.6 pm
Q.45. What is IUPAC name of following compound?
A. 1-Chloro-4-methylcyclohexan-2-one
B. 2-Chloro-3-methyclohexanone
C. 2-Chloro-4-methylcyclohexanone
D. 4-Methyl-2-chlorocyclohexanone
Answer :- C. 2-Chloro-4-methylcyclohexanone
Q.46. Which element from following is used for cancer treatment?
A. Ba
B. Sr
C. Ra
D. Ru
Answer :- C. Ra
Q.47. The rate law for the reaction A+B→C at 25∘C is given by rate =k[A][B]2. Calculate the rate of reaction if rate constant at same temperature is 6.25 mol−2 dm6 s−1[[ A]=1M,[B]=0.2M]
A. 0.25 mol dm−3 s−1
B. 0.5 mol dm−3 s−1
C. 0.75 mol dm−3 s−1
D. 1.25 mol dm−3 s−1
Answer :- A
Q.48. Select the CORRECT increasing order of boiling points of alcohols, amines and carboxylic acids of comparable molar mass from the following.
A. Alcohols < Amines < Carboxylic acids
B. Amines < Carboxylic acids < Alcohols
C. Amines < Alcohols < Carboxylic acids
D. Carboxylic acids < Alcohols < Amines
Answer :- C. Amines < Alcohols < Carboxylic acids
Q.49. What is the number of moles of ‘C’ atoms present in n mole molecule of alkane if it exhibits three structural isomers?
A. 3n
B. 4n
C. 5n
D. 6n
Answer :- C. 5n
Q.50. Which of the following reactions is used for the conversion of alkyl chloride to alkyl iodide?
A. Fitting reaction
B. Friedel Crafts reaction
C. Finkelstein reaction
D. Swartz reaction
Answer :- C. Finkelstein reaction