Sankalp JEE Full Test-1 Solutions

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Question 1 Considering only the principal values of inverse trigonometric functions, the number of positive real values of x satisfying \tan ^{-1}(x)+\tan ^{-1}(2 x)=\frac{\pi}{4} is :

(1) More than 2

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 0

Answer (2)

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Question 2. Consider the function f:(0,2)\to \mathbb{R} defined by f(x)=\frac{x}{2}+\frac{2}{x}and the function g(x) defined by

g(x)= \begin{cases} \min{f(t)\mid 0<t\le x}, & 0<x\le 1,\ \frac{3}{2}+x, & 1<x<2. \end{cases}

(1) g is continuous but not differentiable at x=1

(2) g is not continuous for all x \in(0,2)

(3) g is neither continuous nor differentiable at x=1

(4) g is continuous and differentiable for all x \in(0,2)

Answer (1)

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Question 3. Let the image of the point katex[/katex] in the line \frac{x}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-2}{3} be the point \left(\alpha,\;\beta,\;\gamma\right) Then which one of the following points lies on the line passing through \left(\alpha,\;\beta,\;\gamma\right) and making angles \frac{2\pi}{3} and \frac{3\pi}{4} with the y-axis and z-axis respectively, and an acute angle with the x-axis?

(1) \left(1,-2,1+\sqrt2\right)

(2) \left(1,2,1-\sqrt2\right)

(3) (3,4,3-2 \sqrt{2})

(4) (3,-4,3+2 \sqrt{2})

Answer (3)

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Question 4. Let R be the interior region between the lines 3 x-y+1=0 and x+2 y-5=0 containing the origin. The set of all values of a , for which the points ( a^{2}, a+1 ) lie in R , is :

(1) \cup\left(-\frac{1}{3}, 1\right)

(2) \cup\left(\frac{1}{3}, 1\right)

(3) \cup\left(\frac{2}{3}, 1\right)

(4) \cup\left(\frac{1}{3}, 1\right)

Answer (2)

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Question 5. The 20^{\text {th }} term from the end of the progression 20,19 \frac{1}{4}, 18 \frac{1}{2}, 17 \frac{3}{4}, \ldots,-129 \frac{1}{4} is :-

(1) -118

(2) -110

(3) -115

(4) -100

Answer (3)

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Question 6.

Let f:\mathbb{R}\setminus\left\{-\frac{1}{2}\right\}\to\mathbb{R} and

g:\mathbb{R}\setminus\left\{-\frac{5}{2}\right\}\to\mathbb{R} be defined as

f(x)=\frac{2x+3}{2x+1} and g(x)=\frac{|x|+1}{2x+5}.

Then the domain of the function f\circ g is :

(1) R-\left\{-\frac52\right\}

(2) R

(3) R-\left\{-\frac74\right\}

(4) R-\left\{-\frac52,-\frac74\right\}

Answer (1)

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Question 7. For 0<a<1, the value of the integral \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{1-2 a \cos x+a^{2}} is :

(1) \frac{\pi^{2}}{\pi+a^{2}}

(2) \frac{\pi^{2}}{\pi-a^{2}}

(3) \frac{\pi}{1-a^{2}}

(4) \frac{\pi}{1+a^{2}}

Answer (3)

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Question 8. Let g(x)=3 f\left(\frac{x}{3}\right)+f(3-x) and f^{\prime \prime}(x)>0 for all \mathrm{x} \in(0,3). If g is decreasing in ( 0, \alpha ) and increasing in ( \alpha, 3 ), then 8 \alpha is

(1) 24

(2) 0

(3) 18

(4) 20

Answer (3)

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Question 9. If \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{3+\alpha \sin x+\beta \cos x+\ln(1-x)}{3 \tan^{2} x}=\frac{1}{3} then 2\alpha-\beta is equal to :

(1) 2

(2) 7

(3) 5

(4) 1

Answer (3)

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Question 10. If \alpha, \beta are the roots of the equation, x^{2}-x-1=0 and S_{n}=2023 \alpha^{n}+2024 \beta^{n}, then

(1) 2 S_{12}=S_{11}+S_{10}

(2) S_{12}=S_{11}+S_{10}

(3) 2 S_{11}=S_{12}+S_{10}

(4) S_{11}=S_{10}+S_{12}

Answer (2)

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Question 11. Let A and B be two finite sets with m and n elements respectively. The total number of subsets of the set A is 56 more than the total number of subsets of B . Then the distance of the point P(m, n) from the point Q(-2,-3) is

(1) 10

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 8

Answer (1)

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Question 12. The values of \alpha, for which

\begin{vmatrix}1&\frac32&\alpha+\frac32\\1&\frac13&\alpha+\frac13\\2\alpha+3&3\alpha+1&0\end{vmatrix}=0

lie in the interval

(1) (-2, 1)

(2) (-3, 0)

(3) \left(-\frac{3}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)

(4) (0, 3)

Answer (2)

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Question 13. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two successive draws of 4 balls are made without replacement. The probability, that the first draw gives all white balls and the second draw gives all black balls, is :

(1) \frac{5}{256}

(2) \frac{5}{715}

(3) \frac{3}{715}

(4) \frac{3}{256}

Answer (3)

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Question 14. The integral \int \frac{\left(x^{8}-x^{2}\right) d x}{\left(x^{12}+3 x^{6}+1\right) \tan ^{-1}\left(x^{3}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}\right)} is equal to :

(1)\log {e}\left(\left|\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{3}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}\right)\right|\right)^{1 / 3}+C

(2) \log {e}\left(\left|\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{3}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}\right)\right|\right)^{1 / 2}+C

(3) \log {e}\left(\left|\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{3}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}\right)\right|\right)+C

(4) \log {e}\left(\left|\tan ^{-1}\left(x^{3}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}\right)\right|\right)^{3}+C

Answer (1)

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Question 15. If 2 \tan ^{2} \theta-5 \sec \theta=1 has exactly 7 solutions in the interval \left[0, \frac{n \pi}{2}\right], for the least value of n \in N then \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{k}{2^{k}} is equal to :

(1) \frac{1}{2^{15}}\left(2^{14}-14\right)

(2) \frac{1}{2^{14}}\left(2^{15}-15\right)

(3) 1-\frac{15}{2^{13}}

(4) \frac{1}{2^{13}}\left(2^{14}-15\right)

Answer (4)

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Question 16. The position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of a triangle are 2 \hat{i}-3 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}, \quad 2 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} and -\hat{i}+\hat{j}+3 \hat{k} respectively. Let l denotes the length of the angle bisector AD of \angle BAC where D is on the line segment BC , then 2 l^{2} equals :

(1) 49

(2) 42

(3) 50

(4) 45

Answer (4)

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Question 17. If y=y(x) is the solution curve of the differential equation \left(x^{2}-4\right) d y-\left(y^{2}-3 y\right) d x=0, x>2, y(4)=\frac{3}{2} and the slope of the curve is never zero, then the value of y(10) equals :

(1) \frac{3}{1+(8)^{1 / 4}}

(2) \frac{3}{1+2 \sqrt{2}}

(3) \frac{3}{1-2 \sqrt{2}}

(4) \frac{3}{1-(8)^{1 / 4}}

Answer (1)

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Question 18. Let e_{1} be the eccentricity of the hyperbola \frac{x^{2}}{16}-\frac{y^{2}}{9}=1 and e_{2} be the eccentricity of the ellipse \frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1, a>b, which passes through the foci of the hyperbola. If e_{1} e_{2}=1, then the length of the chord of the ellipse parallel to the x -axis and passing through is :

(1) 4 \sqrt{5}

(2) \frac{8 \sqrt{5}}{3}

(3) \frac{10 \sqrt{5}}{3}

(4) 3 \sqrt{5}

Answer (3)

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Question 19. Let \alpha=\frac{(4!)!}{(4!)^{3!}} and \beta=\frac{(5!)!}{(5!)^{4!}}. Then :

(1) \alpha \in N and \beta \notin N

(2) \alpha \notin N and \beta \in N

(3) \alpha \in N and \beta \in N

(4) \alpha \notin N and \beta \notin N

Answer (3)

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Question 20. Let the position vectors of the vertices A , B and C of a triangle be 2 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+\hat{k}, \quad \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+2 \hat{k} and 2 \hat{i}+\hat{j}+2 \hat{k} respectively. Let l_{1}, l_{2} and l_{3} be the lengths of perpendiculars drawn from the ortho center of the triangle on the sides AB, BC and CA respectively, then l_{1}^{2}+l_{2}^{2}+l_{3}^{2} equals :

(1) \frac{1}{5}

(2) \frac{1}{2}

(3) \frac{1}{4}

(4) \frac{1}{3}

Answer (2)

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Question 21. The mean and standard deviation of 15 observations were found to be 12 and 3 respectively. On rechecking it was found that an observation was read as 10 in place of 12 . If \mu and \sigma^{2} denote the mean and variance of the correct observations respectively, then 15\left(\mu+\mu^{2}+\sigma^{2}\right) is equal to

Answer (2521)

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Question 22. Let A be a 2 \times 2 real matrix and I be the identity matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation |A-x I|=0 be -1 and 3 , then the sum of the diagonal elements of the matrix A^{2} is ____

Answer (10)

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Question 23. If the sum of squares of all real values of \alpha, for which the lines 2 x-y+3=0,6 x+3 y+1=0 and \alpha x+2 y-2=0 do not form a triangle is p , then the greatest integer less than or equal to p is ____

Answer (32)

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Question 24. The coefficient of x^{2012} in the expansion of ^{2008}\left(1+x+x^{2}\right)^{2007} is equal to

Answer (0)

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Question 25. If the solution curve, of the differential equation \frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x+y-2}{x-y} passing through the point (2, 1) is

\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{y-1}{x-1}\right)-\frac1\beta\log_e\left(\alpha+\left(\frac{y-1}{x-1}\right)^2\right)=\log_e\left|x-1\right|

, then 5 \beta+\alpha is equal to

Answer (11)

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Question 26. The equation of state of a real gas is given by \left(P+\frac{a}{V^{2}}\right)(V-b)=RT, where P, V and T are pressure. volume and temperature respectively and R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of \frac{a}{b^{2}} is similar to that of :

(1) PV

(2) P

(3) RT

(4) R

Answer (2)

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Question 27. Wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure the specific resistance ( S_{1} ) of given wire, having length L , radius r . If X is the resistance of wire, then specific resistance is : S_{1}=X\left(\frac{\pi r^{2}}{~L}\right). If the length of the wire gets doubled then the value of specific resistance will be :

(1) \frac{S_{1}}{4}

(2) 2 ~S_{1}

(3) \frac{S_{1}}{2}

(4) S_{1}

Answer (4)

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Question 28. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R ).

Assertion (A) : The angular speed of the moon in its orbit about the earth is more than the angular speed of the earth in its orbit about the sun.

Reason (R) : The moon takes less time to move around the earth than the time taken by the earth to move around the sun.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Answer (2)

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Question 29. Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction depends on the area of contact and independent of materials.

Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact and depends on materials.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Answer. (2)

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Question 30. A current of 200 \mu ~A deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60^{\circ}. The current to cause deflection through \frac{\pi}{10} radian is :

(1) 30 \mu ~A

(2) 120 \mu ~A

(3) 60 \mu ~A

(4) 180 \mu ~A

Answer (3)

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Question 31. The atomic mass of { }<em>{6} C^{12} is 12.000000 u and that of { }{6} C^{13} is 13.003354 u . The required energy to remove a neutron from { }_{6} C^{13}, if mass of neutron is 1.008665 u , will be :

(1) 62.5 MeV

(2) 6.25 MeV

(3) 4.95 MeV

(4) 49.5 MeV

Answer (3)

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Question 32. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its magnitude of acceleration in the extreme position and lowest position are equal. The angle ( \theta ) of thread deflection in the extreme position will be :

(1) \tan ^{-1}(\sqrt{2})

(2) 2 \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)

(3) \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)

(4) 2 \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)

Answer (2)

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Question 33. Three voltmeters, all having different internal resistances are joined as shown in figure. When some potential difference is applied across A and B, their readings are V_{1}, V_{2} and V_{3}. Choose the correct option.

(1) V_{1}=V_{2}

(2) V_{1} \neq V_{3}-V_{2}

(3) V_{1}+V_{2}>V_{3}

(4) V_{1}+V_{2}=V_{3}

This image has an empty alt attribute; its file name is SJFT1.IMG2_.webp

Answer (4)

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Question 34. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27^{\circ} C is :
[Use universal gas constant =8.31 ~J / mole K ]

(1) 6845.5 J

(2) 5942.0 J

(3) 6232.5 J

(4) 5670.5 J

Answer (3)

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Question 35. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements, the reading taken will be more than the actual reading.

Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect or due to rough handling.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer (2)

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Question 36. Primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 ~V, 50 ~Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to secondary winding is 10: 1. Load resistance connected to secondary side is 46 \Omega. The power consumed in it is :

(1) 12.5 W

(2) 10.0 W

(3) 11.5 W

(4) 12.0 W

Answer (3)

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Question 37. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio of \frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}} for the gas is :

(1) \frac{5}{3}

(2) \frac{3}{2}

(3) \frac{7}{5}

(4) \frac{9}{7}

Answer (2)

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Question 38. The threshold frequency of a metal with work function 6.63 eV is :

(1) 16 \times 10^{15} ~Hz

(2) 16 \times 10^{12} ~Hz

(3) 1.6 \times 10^{12} ~Hz

(4) 1.6 \times 10^{15} ~Hz

Answer (4)

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Question 39. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is \frac{d}{2}, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :

(1) \frac{\mathrm{Mg}}{2}

(2) \mathrm{Mg}

(3) \frac{3}{2}\mathrm{Mg}

(4) 2\mathrm{Mg}

Answer: Option (1)

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Question 40. When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids then the transmitted light intensity will be maximum for a rotation of :

(1) 60^{\circ}

(2) 30^{\circ}

(3) 90^{\circ}

(4) 45^{\circ}

Answer (4)

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Question 41. An object is placed in a medium of refractive index 3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 6 \times 10^{8} ~W / m^{2} falls normally on the object and it is absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on the object would be (speed of light in free space =3 \times 10^{8} ~m / s ) :

(1) 36 ~Nm^{-2}

(2) 18 ~Nm^{-2}

(3) 6 ~Nm^{-2}

(4) 2 ~Nm^{-2}

Answer (3)

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Question 42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled a Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R)

Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface is always zero.

Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer (4)

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Question 43. A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of a man. The rod makes an angle 60^{\circ} with the horizontal, the weight experienced by the man is :

(1) 6 kg

(2) 12 kg

(3) 3 kg

(4) 6 \sqrt{3} ~kg

Answer (3)

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Question 44. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :

(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.

(2) a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.

(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.

(4) all of the above.

Answer: Option (4)

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Question 45. The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop formed by two semicircular wires of radii R_{1}=2 \pi ~m and R_{2}=4 \pi ~m carrying current I=4 ~A as per figure given below is \alpha \times 10^{-7} ~T. The value of \alpha is
____ . (Centre O is common for all segments)

Answer (3.00)

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Question 46. Two charges of -4 \mu C and +4 \mu C are placed at the points A(1,0,4) m and B(2,-1,5) m located in an electric field \overrightarrow{E}=0.20 \hat{i} V / cm. The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is 8 \sqrt{\alpha} \times 10^{-5} Nm, Where \alpha= ____ .

Answer (2.00)

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Question 47. A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm , both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity of sound is ____ m / s.

Answer (294.00)

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Question 48. A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2 s . The distance of upper point A from the starting point is ____ m (use g=10 ~ms^{-2} )

Answer (45.00)

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Question 49. The reading of pressure metre attached with a closed pipe is 4.5 \times 10^{4} ~N / m^{2}. On opening the valve, water starts flowing and the reading of pressure metre falls to 2.0 \times 10^{4} ~N / m^{2}. The velocity of water is found to be \sqrt{V} ~m / s. The value of V is ____

Answer (50)

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Question 50. A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane without slipping. They start from rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the ratio of their kinetic energies is \frac{7}{x} where x is
____ .

Answer (7.00)

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Question 51. The order of relative stability of the contributing structure is:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III

(3) I=II= III

(4) III > II > I

Answer (1)

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Question 52. Which among the following halide/s will not show S_{N} 1 reaction:

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (B) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (B) only

Answer (4)

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Question 53. Which of the following statements is not correct about rusting of iron?

(1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting, even if the tin coating is peeling off.

(2) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron does not take place.

(3) Dissolved acidic oxides SO_{2}, NO_{2} in water act as catalyst in the process of rusting.

(4) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of electrochemical cell on the surface of iron object.

Answer (1)

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Question 54. Given below are two statements:

Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation of Ce^{+4} is favoured by its noble gas configuration.

Statement (II) : Ce^{+4} is a strong oxidant reverting to the common +3 state.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Answer (2)

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Question 55. Choose the correct option having all the elements with d^{10} electronic configuration from the following:

(1) { }^{27} Co,{ }^{28} Ni,{ }^{26} Fe,{ }^{24} Cr

(2) { }^{29} Cu,{ }^{30} Zn,{ }^{48} Cd,{ }^{47} Ag

(3) { }^{46} Pd,{ }^{28} Ni,{ }^{26} Fe,{ }^{24} Cr

(4) { }^{28} Ni,{ }^{24} Cr,{ }^{26} Fe,{ }^{29} Cu

Answer (2)

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Question 56. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive:

(1) Phthalein dye test

(2) Lucas test

(3) Tollen’s test

(4) Carbylamine test

Answer (1)

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Question 57. The molecular formula of second homologue in the homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is ____.

(1) C_{3} H_{6} O_{2}

(2) C_{2} H_{4} O_{2}

(3) CH_{2} O

(4) C_{2} H_{2} O_{2}

Answer (2)

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Question 58. The technique used for purification of steam volatile water immiscible substance is:

(1) Fractional distillation

(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure

(3) Distillation

(4) Steam distillation

Answer (4)

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Question 59. The final product A, formed in the following reaction sequence is:

Answer (4)

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Question 60. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Answer (4)

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Question 61. Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of:

Answer (4)

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Question 62. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)_{2} is:

Answer (4)

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Question 63. Given below are two statements:

Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of group 16 exhibits only -2 oxidation state.

Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4 oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer (3)

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Question 64. Identify from the following species in which d^{2} sp^{3} hybridization is shown by central atom:

(1) \left[Co\left(NH_3\right)6\right]^{3+}

(2) BrF_5

(3) \left[Pt(Cl)4\right]^{2-}

(4) SF_6

Answer (1)

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Question 65. Identify B formed in the reaction.

Answer (2)

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Question 66. The quantity which changes with temperature is:

(1) Molarity

(2) Mass percentage

(3) Molality

(4) Mole fraction

Answer (1)

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Question 67. Which structure of protein remains intact after coagulation of egg white on boiling?

(1) Primary

(2) Tertiary

(3) Secondary

(4) Quaternary

Answer (1)

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Question 68. Which of the following cannot function as an oxidising agent?

(1) N^{3-}

(2) SO_{4}^{2-}

(3) BrO_{3}^{-}

(4) MnO_{4}^{-}

Answer (1)

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Question 69. The incorrect statement regarding conformations of ethane is:

(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations

(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is 60^{\circ}

(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable conformation.

(4) The conformations of ethane are interconvertible to one-another.

Answer (3)

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Question 70. Identity the incorrect pair from the following:

(1) Photography – AgBr

(2) Polythene preparation -TiCl_4,Al{\left(CH_3\right)}_3

(3) Haber process – Iron

(4) Wacker process -Pt\;Cl_2

Answer (4)

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Question 71. Total number of ions from the following with noble gas configuration is.

\begin{aligned} & \mathrm{Sr}^{2+}(Z=38),\ \mathrm{Cs}^{+}(Z=55),\ \mathrm{La}^{2+}(Z=57),\ \mathrm{Pb}^{2+}(Z=82), \\ & \mathrm{Yb}^{2+}(Z=70)\ \text{and}\ \mathrm{Fe}^{2+}(Z=26) \end{aligned}

Answer (2)

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Question 72. The number of non-polar molecules from the following is ____.

HF, H_{2} O, SO_{2}, H_{2}, CO_{2}, CH_{4}, NH_{3}, HCl, CHCl_{3}, BF_{3}

Answer (4)

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Question 73. Time required for completion of 99.9 \% of a First order reaction is times of half life \left(t_{1 / 2}\right) of the reaction.

Answer (10)

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Question 74. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square planar complex \left[Pt{\left(NH_3\right)}_2Cl\left(NH_2CH_3\right)\right]Cl is ______B.M. (Nearest integer)

(Given atomic number for Pt=78 )

Answer (0)

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Question 75. For a certain thermochemical reaction M \rightarrow N at

T=400 ~K, \Delta H^{\ominus}=77.2 ~kJ ~mol^{-1}, \Delta ~S=122 ~JK^{-1},

\log equilibrium constant (\log K) is – \times 10^{-1}.

Answer (37)

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