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Question 1. { }^{n-1} C_{r}=\left(k^{2}-8\right){ }^{n} C_{r+1} if and only if :
(1) 2 \sqrt{2}<k \leq 3
(2) 2 \sqrt{3}<k \leq 3 \sqrt{2}
(3) 2 \sqrt{3}<k<3 \sqrt{3}
(4) 2 \sqrt{2}<k<2 \sqrt{3}
Answer (1)
Question 2. The distance, of the point katex[/katex] from the line \frac{x-6}{1}=\frac{y-4}{0}=\frac{z-8}{3} \quad along the line \frac{x-5}{2}=\frac{y-1}{-3}=\frac{z-5}{6}, is :
(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 18
(4) 21
Answer (2)
Question 3. Let x=x(t) and y=y(t) be solutions of the differential equations \frac{dx}{dt}+ax=0 \quad and \frac{dy}{dt}+by=0 respectively, a, b \in R. Given that x(0)=2 ; y(0)=1 and 3 y(1)=2 x(1), the value of t, for which x(t)=y(t), is :
(1) \log {\frac{2}{3}} 2
(2) \log {4} 3
(3) \log {3} 4
(4) \log {\frac{4}{3}} 2
Answer (4)
Question 4. If (a, b) be the orthocentre of the triangle whose vertices are(2,3) and , and I_{1}=\int_{a}^{b} x \sin \left(4 x-x^{2}\right) d x, I_{2}=\int_{a}^{b} \sin \left(4 x-x^{2}\right) d x , then 36 \frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}} is equal to :
(1) 72
(2) 88
(3) 80
(4) 66
Answer (1)
Question 5. If A denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of \left(1-3 x+10 x^{2}\right)^{n} and B denotes the sum of all the coefficients in the expansion of \left(1+x^{2}\right)^{n}, then :
(1) A=B^{3}
(2) 3 ~A=B
(3) B=A^{3}
(4) A=3 ~B
Answer (1)
Question 6. The number of common terms in the progressions 4, 9, 14, 19, ____ , up to 25^{\text {th }} term and 3,6,9,12, ……., up to 37^{\text {th }} term is :
(1) 9
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8
Answer (3)
Question 7. If the shortest distance of the parabola y^{2}=4 x from the centre of the circle x^{2}+y^{2}-4 x-16 y+64=0 is d , then d^{2} is equal to :
(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 20
(4) 36
Answer (3)
Question 8. If the shortest distance between the lines \frac{x-4}{1}=\frac{y+1}{2}=\frac{z}{-3} and \frac{x-\lambda}{2}=\frac{y+1}{4}=\frac{z-2}{-5} is \frac{6}{\sqrt{5}}, then the sum of all possible values of \lambda is :
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 10
Answer (2)
Question 9. If \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{\sqrt{3+x}+\sqrt{1+x}} d x=a+b \sqrt{2}+c \sqrt{3}, where a, b, c are rational numbers, then 2 a+3 ~b-4 c is equal to :
(1) 4
(2) 10
(3) 7
(4) 8
Answer (4)
Question 10. Let S={1,2,3, \ldots, 10}. Suppose M is the set of all the subsets of S , then the relation
R={(A, B): A \cap B \neq \phi ; A, B \in M} is :
(1) symmetric and reflexive only
(2) reflexive only
(3) symmetric and transitive only
(4) symmetric only
Answer (4)
Question 11. If S={z \in C:|z-i|=|z+i|=|z-1|}, then, n(S) is:
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 3
(4) 2
Answer (1)
Question 12. Four distinct points (2 k, 3 k),(1,0),(0,1) and lie on a circle for k equal to :
(1) \frac{2}{13}
(2) \frac{3}{13}
(3) \frac{5}{13}
(4) \frac{1}{13}
Answer (3)
Question 13. Consider the function.
f\left(x\right)=\left\{\begin{array}{lc}\begin{array}{c}\frac{a\left(7x-12-x^2\right)}{b\left|x^2-7x+12\right|}\end{array}&x<3\\2^\frac{\sin\left(x-3\right)}{x-\left[x\right]}&x>3\\b&x=3\end{array}\right.
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x . If S denotes the set of all ordered pairs (a, b) such that f(x) is continuous at x=3, then the number of elements in S is :
(1) 2
(2) Infinitely many
(3) 4
(4) 1
Answer (4)
Question 14. Let \mathrm{a}{1}, \mathrm{a}{2}, \ldots . . \mathrm{a}{10} be 10 observations such that \sum_{k=1}^{10}a_k=50 and \sum_{\forall k>j}a_k.a_j=1100 . Then the standard deviation of a_{1}, a_{2}, . ., a_{10} is equal to:
(1) 5
(2) \sqrt{5}
(3) 10
(4) \sqrt{115}
Answer (2)
Question 15. The length of the chord of the ellipse \frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{16}=1, whose mid point is \left(1, \frac{2}{5}\right), is equal to :
(1) \frac{\sqrt{1691}}{5}
(2) \frac{\sqrt{2009}}{5}
(3) \frac{\sqrt{1741}}{5}
(4) \frac{\sqrt{1541}}{5}
Answer (1)
Question 16. The portion of the line 4 x+5 y=20 in the first quadrant is trisected by the lines L_{1} and L_{2} passing through the origin. The tangent of an angle between the lines L_{1} and L_{2} is :
(1) \frac{8}{5}
(2) \frac{25}{41}
(3) \frac{2}{5}
(4) \frac{30}{41}
Answer (4)
Question 17. Let \vec{a}=\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+k, \vec{b}=3(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+k). Let \vec{c} be the vector such that \vec{a} \times \vec{c}=\vec{b} and \vec{a} \cdot \vec{c}=3. Then \overrightarrow{a} \cdot((\overrightarrow{c} \times \overrightarrow{b})-\overrightarrow{b}-\overrightarrow{c}) is equal to :
(1) 32
(2) 24
(3) 20
(4) 36
Answer (2)
Question 18. If a=\lim {x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+\sqrt{1+x^{4}}}-\sqrt{2}}{x^{4}} and b=\lim {x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin ^{2} x}{\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{1+\cos x}} , then the value of ab^{3} is :
(1) 36
(2) 32
(3) 25
(4) 30
Answer (2)
Question 19. Consider the matrix
f\left(x\right)=\begin{bmatrix}\cos\;x&-\sin\;x&0\\\sin\;x&\cos\;x&0\\0&0&1\end{bmatrix}
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: \mathrm{f}(-\mathrm{x}) is the inverse of the matrix \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}).
Statement II: \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}) \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{y})=\mathrm{f}(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{y}).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (4)
Question 20. The function f: N-{1} \rightarrow N; defined by f(n)= the highest prime factor of n , is :
(1) both one-one and onto
(2) one-one only
(3) onto only
(4) neither one-one nor onto
Answer (4)
Question 21. The least positive integral value of \alpha, for which the angle between the vectors \alpha \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+2 k and \alpha \hat{i}+2 \alpha \hat{j}-2 k is acute, is ____.
Answer (5)
Question 22. Let for a differentiable function \mathrm{f}:(0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathrm{R},
\mathrm f(\mathrm x)-\mathrm f(\mathrm y)\geq\log_e\left(\frac{\mathrm x}{\mathrm y}\right)+\mathrm x-\mathrm y,\forall\mathrm x,\mathrm y\in(0,\infty).
Then \sum_{n=1}^{20}f'\left(\frac1{n^2}\right) is equal to ____ .
Answer (2890)
Question 23. If the solution of the differential equation
(2 x+3 y-2) d x+(4 x+6 y-7) d y=0, y(0)=3, is
\alpha x+\beta y+3 \log _{e}|2 x+3 y-\gamma|=6,
then \alpha+2 \beta+3 \gamma is equal to ____ .
Answer (29)
Question 24. If 8=3+\frac{1}{4}(3+p)+\frac{1}{4^{2}}(3+2 p)+\frac{1}{4^{3}}(3+3 p)+\ldots \infty, then the value of p is ____ .
Answer (9)
Question 25. A fair die is tossed repeatedly until a six is obtained. Let X denote the number of tosses required and let \mathrm{a}=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=3), \mathrm{b}=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X} \geq 3) and \mathrm{c}= \mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X} \geq 6 \mid \mathrm{X}>3). Then \frac{\mathrm{b}+\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{a}} is equal to____ .
Answer (12)
Question 26. Position of an ant ( S in metres) moving in Y-Z plane is given by S=2 t^{2} \hat{j}+5 \hat{k} (where t is in second). The magnitude and direction of velocity of the ant at t=1 ~s will be :
(1) 16 ~m / s in y-direction
(2) 4 ~m / s in x-direction
(3) 9 ~m / s in z-direction
(4) 4 ~m / s in y-direction
Answer (4)
Question 27. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) :Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.
Statement (II) : Surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble impurities.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
Question 28. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is \cot \left(\frac{A}{2}\right), where A is the angle of prism then the angle of minimum deviation will be
(1) \pi-2 ~A
(2) \frac{\pi}{2}-2 ~A
(3) \pi-A
(4) \frac{\pi}{2}-A
Answer (1)
Question 29. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its velocity. If \overrightarrow{E} and \overrightarrow{B} represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, then the region of space may have :
(A) E=0, ~B=0
(B) E=0, ~B \neq 0
(C) E \neq 0, ~B=0
(D) E \neq 0, ~B \neq 0
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer (3)
Question 30. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g . If the diameter of earth reduces to half of its original value and mass remains constant, then acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth would be :
(1) g / 4
(2) 2 g
(3) g / 2
(4) 4 g
Answer (4)
Question 31. A train is moving with a speed of 12 ~m / s on rails which are 1.5 m apart. To negotiate a curve radius 400 m , the height by which the outer rail should be raised with respect to the inner rail is (Given, g= 10 ~m / s^{2} ) :
(1) 6.0 cm
(2) 5.4 cm
(3) 4.8 cm
(4) 4.2 cm
Answer (2)
Question 32. Which of the following circuits is reverse – biased ?
Answer (4)
Question 33. Identify the physical quantity that cannot be measured using spherometer :
(1) Radius of curvature of concave surface
(2) Specific rotation of liquids
(3) Thickness of thin plates
(4) Radius of curvature of convex surface
Answer (2)
Question 34. Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of magnitude of their linear momentum is :
(1) 3: 5
(2) 5: 4
(3) 2: 5
(4) 4: 5
Answer (3)
Question 35. 0.08 kg air is heated at constant volume through 5^{\circ} C. The specific heat of air at constant volume is 0.17 kcal / kg^{\circ} C and J=4.18 joule / cal. The change in its internal energy is approximately.
(1) 318 J
2) 298 J
(3) 284 J
(4) 142 J
Answer (3)
Question 36. The radius of third stationary orbit of electron for Bohr’s atom is R . The radius of fourth stationary orbit will be:
(1) \frac{4}{3} R
(2) \frac{16}{9} R
(3) \frac{3}{4} R
(4) \frac{9}{16} R
Answer (2)
Question 37. A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m is placed at 60^{\circ} to a magnetic field of 4 T . The loop is removed from the field in 10 sec . The average emf induced in the loop during this time is
(1) -2 V
(2) +2 V
(3) +1 V
(4) -1 V
Answer (3)
Question 38. An electric charge 10^{-6} \mu C is placed at origin (0, 0) m of X-Y co-ordinate system. Two points P and Q are situated at (\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{3}) m and (\sqrt{6}, 0) m respectively. The potential difference between the points P and Q will be :
(1) \sqrt{3} ~V
(2) \sqrt{6} ~V
(3) 0 V
(4) 3 V
Answer (3)
Question 39. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an image of an extended source of light on a photoelectric cell. A current I is produced. The lens is replaced by another convex lens having the same diameter but focal length 20 cm . The photoelectric current now is :
(1) \frac{I}{2}
(2) 4 I
(3) 2 I
(4) I
Answer (4)
Question 40. A body of mass 1000 kg is moving horizontally with a velocity 6 ~m / s. If 200 kg extra mass is added, the final velocity (in m / s ) is:
(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5
Answer (4)
Question 41. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x -direction is described by
E_{y}=\left(200 Vm^{-1}\right) \sin \left[1.5 \times 10^{7} t-0.05 x\right];
The intensity of the wave is :
(Use \in_{0}=8.85 \times 10^{-12} C^{2} ~N^{-1} ~m^{-2} )
(1) 35.4 Wm^{-2}
(2) 53.1 Wm^{-2}
(3) 26.6 Wm^{-2}
(4) 106.2 Wm^{-2}
Answer (2)
Question 42. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Planck’s constant and angular momentum have same dimensions.
Statement (II) : Linear momentum and moment of force have same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer (1)
Question 43. A wire of length 10 cm and radius \sqrt{7} \times 10^{-4} ~m connected across the right gap of a meter bridge. When a resistance of 4.5 \Omega is connected on the left gap by using a resistance box, the balance length is found to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the wire is R \times 10^{-7} \Omega ~m, then value of R is :
(1) 63
(2) 70
(3) 66
(4) 35
Answer (3)
Question 44. A wire of resistance R and length L is cut into 5 equal parts. If these parts are joined parallely, then resultant resistance will be :
(1) \frac{1}{25} R
(2) \frac{1}{5} R
(3) 25 R
(4) 5 R
Answer (1)
Question 45. The average kinetic energy of a monatomic molecule is 0.414 eV at temperature :
(Use K_{B}=1.38 \times 10^{-23} ~J / mol-K )
(1) 3000 K
(2) 3200 K
(3) 1600 K
(4) 1500 K
Answer (2)
Question 46. A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity 5 \hat{i} m / s and moves in x-y plane under action of a force which produces a constant acceleration of (3 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}) m / s^{2}. If the x -coordinate of the particle at that instant is 84 m , then the speed of the particle at this time is \sqrt{\alpha} m / s. The value of \alpha is ____.
Answer (673)
Question 47. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002 H . The current changes in the first coil according to the relation i=i_{0} \sin \omega t, where i_{0}=5 ~A and \omega=50 \pi ~rad / s. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is \frac{\pi}{\alpha} V. The value of \alpha is ____ .
Answer (2)
Question 48. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide ( A \approx 236 ) with binding energy 7.6 MeV / Nucleon dissociated into middle mass nuclides ( A \approx 118 ), having binding energy of 8.6 MeV / Nucleon. The energy released in the process would be ____ MeV .
Answer (236)
Question 49. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm . At the mean position, velocity of the particle is 10 ~cm / s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 ~cm / s is \sqrt{\alpha} ~cm, where \alpha= ____ .
Answer (12)
Question 50. If average depth of an ocean is 4000 m and the bulk modulus of water is 2 \times 10^{9} Nm^{-2}, then fractional compression \frac{\Delta V}{V} of water at the bottom of ocean is \alpha \times 10^{-2}. The value of \alpha is___ .
(Given, g=10 ~ms^{-2}, \rho=1000 ~kg ~m^{-3} )
Answer (2)
Question 51. Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage known as :
(1) Phosphodiester linkage
(2) Glycosidic linkage
(3) Disulphide linkage
(4) Peptide linkage
Answer (1)
Question 52. Highest enol content will be shown by :
Answer (2)
Question 53 Element not showing variable oxidation state is :
(1) Bromine
(2) Iodine
(3) Chlorine
(4) Fluorine
Answer (4)
Question 54. Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
Answer (4)
Question 55. Which of the following electronic configuration would be associated with the highest magnetic moment?
(1) [Ar] 3 ~d^{7}
(2) [Ar] 3 ~d^{8}
(3) [Ar] 3 ~d^{3}
(4) [Ar] 3 ~d^{6}
Answer (4)
Question 56. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?
Answer (4)
Question 57. A solution of two miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law will have :
(1) increased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
(2) increased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(3) decreased vapour pressure, decreased boiling point
(4) decreased vapour pressure, increased boiling point
Answer (4)
Question 58. Consider the following complex ions
P=\left[FeF_{6}\right]^{3-} Q=\left[V\left(H_2O\right)6\right]^{2+} R=\left[Fe{\left(H_2O\right)}_6\right]^{2+}The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is :
(1) R<Q<P
(2) R < P < Q
(3) Q<R<P
(4) Q < P < R
Answer (3)
Question 59. Choose the polar molecule from the following :
(1) CCl_{4}
(2) CO_{2}
(3) CH_{2}=CH_{2}
(4) CHCl_{3}
Answer (4)
Question 60. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f – series of elements are placed separately in the Periodic table to preserve the principle of classification.
Statement (II) : S-block elements can be found in pure form in nature. In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (3)
Question 61. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than m -nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer (1)
Question 62. The ascending order of acidity of -OH group in the following compounds is :
(A) Bu-OH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(2) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)
(3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)
(4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
Answer (4)
Question 63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron ( 2453 K) is unusually high in group 13 elements.
Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below ;
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (2)
Question 64. Cyclohexene 
is type of an organic compound.
(1) Benzenoid aromatic
(2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
(3) Acyclic
(4) Alicyclic
Answer (4)
Question 65. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product of lead formed is a :
(1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination number six
(2) Neutral complex with coordination number four
(3) Dianionic complex with coordination number six
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number four
Answer (4)
Question 66. Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on
K_{a} and K_{b} value of acid and the base forming it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer (1)
Question 67. IUPAC name of following compound (P) is :
(1) l-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
(2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
Answer (2)
Question 68. NaCl reacts with conc. H_{2} SO_{4} and K_{2} Cr_{2} O_{7} to give reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are ;
(1) CrO_{2} Cl_{2}, Na_{2} CrO_{4}
(2) Na_{2} CrO_{4}, CrO_{2} Cl_{2}
(3) CrO_{2} Cl_{2}, KHSO_{4}
(4) CrO_{2} Cl_{2}, Na_{2} Cr_{2} O_{7}
Answer (1)
Question 69. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is ;
(1) Retention occurs in S_{N} 1 reaction and inversion occurs in S_{N} 2 reaction.
(2) Racemisation occurs in S_{N} 1 reaction and retention occurs in S_{N} 2 reaction.
(3) Racemisation occurs in both S_{N} 1 and S_{N} 2 reactions
(4) Racemisation occurs in S_{N} 1 reaction and inversion occurs in S_{N} 2 reaction.
Answer (4)
Question 70. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is:
[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60]
(1) [Xe] 4 f^{4} 6 ~s^{2}
(2) [Xe] 5 f^{4} 7 ~s^{2}
(3) [Xe] 4 f^{6} 6 ~s^{2}
(4) [X e] 4 f^{1} 5 d^{1} 6 s^{2}
Answer (1)
Question 71. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag: 108 gmol^{-1} ) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O_{2} at S.T.P. will be ____ g.
Answer (107 or 108)
Question 72. Consider the following data for the given reaction
2 HI_{(g)} \rightarrow H_{2(g)}+I_{2(g)} \begin{array}{llll} & 1 & 2 & 3 \\ HI\left(mol L^{-1}\right) & 0.005 & 0.01 & 0.02 \\ Rate \left(mol L^{-1} s^{-1}\right) & 7.5 \times 10^{-4} & 3.0 \times 10^{-3} & 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \end{array}The order of the reaction is_____.
Answer (2)
Question 73. Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO_{2} after complete combustion is ____ g.
(Given Molar mass in g mol-1 \quad C=12.0
\begin{aligned} & H=1.0 \ & O=16.0) \end{aligned}Answer (8)
Question 74. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand isotherrnally from 30 dm^{3} to 45 dm^{3} against a constant opposing pressure of 80 kPa , then the amount of heat transferred is ____ J.
Answer (1200)
Question 75. Among the following, total number of meta directing functional groups is (Integer based)
-\mathrm{OCH}{3},-\mathrm{NO}{2},-\mathrm{CN},-\mathrm{CH}{3}-\mathrm{NHCOCH}{3} -\mathrm{COR},-\mathrm{OH},-\mathrm{COOH},-\mathrm{Cl}Answer (4)