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Question 1. Consider the system of linear equations x+y+z=5, x+2y+\lambda^{2}z=9,
x+3y+\lambda z=\mu, where \lambda,\mu\in R. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(1) System has infinite number of solutions if \lambda=1 and \mu=13
(2) System is inconsistent if \lambda=1 and \mu\neq13
(3) System is consistent if \lambda\neq1 and \mu=13
(4) System has a unique solution if \lambda\neq1 and \mu\neq13
Answer. (4)
Question 2. Let 3\sin(\alpha+\beta)=2\sin(\alpha-\beta). Let a real number k be such that \tan\alpha=k\tan\beta.
Then the value of k is equal to:
(1) -\frac{2}{3}
(2) -5
(3) \frac{2}{3}
(4) 5
Answer. (2) -5
Question 3. Let A(\alpha,0) and B(0,\beta) be points on the line
5x+7y=50. The point P divides the line segment AB internally in the ratio 7:3. Let 3x-25=0 be a directrix of the ellipse E:\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1 and the corresponding focus be S. If the perpendicular from S to the x-axis passes through P, then the length of the latus rectum of E is equal to:
(1) \frac{25}{3}
(2) \frac{32}{9}
(3) \frac{25}{9}
(4) \frac{32}{5}
Answer. (4)
Question 4. Let \vec{a}=\hat{i}+\alpha\hat{j}+\beta\hat{k}, where \alpha,\beta\in R. Let a vector \vec{b} be such that the angle between \vec{a} and \vec{b} is \frac{\pi}{4} and |\vec{b}|^{2}=6. If \vec{a}\cdot\vec{b}=3\sqrt{2}, then the value of |\vec{a}\times\vec{b}|^{2}
is equal to:
(1) 90
(2) 75
(3) 95
(4) 85
Answer. (1)
Question 5. Let f(x)=(x+3)^{2}(x-2)^{3}, where x\in[-4,4]. If M and m are the maximum and minimum values of f respectively on [-4,4], then the value of M-m is:
(1) 600
(2) 392
(3) 608
(4) 108
Answer. (3)
Question 6. Let a and b be two distinct positive real numbers. The 11^{th} term of a GP, whose first term is a and third term is b, is equal to the p^{th} term of another GP, whose first term is a and fifth term is b. Then the value of p is equal to:
(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 21
(4) 24
Answer. (3)
Question 7. If x^{2}-y^{2}+2hxy+2gx+2fy+c=0 is the locus of a point which moves such that it is always equidistant from the lines x+2y+7=0 and 2x-y+8=0,
then the value of g+c+h-f equals:
(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 29
Answer. (1)
Question 8. Let \vec{a} and \vec{b} be two vectors such that |\vec{b}|=1 and |\vec{b}\times\vec{a}|=2. Then the value of |(\vec{b}\times\vec{a})-\vec{b}|^{2} is equal to:
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 1
(4) 4
Answer. (2)
Question 9. Let y=f(x) be a thrice differentiable function in (-5, 5).
The tangents to the curve y=f(x) at (1, f(1)) and (3, f(3)) make angles
\frac{\pi}{6} and \frac{\pi}{4} respectively with the positive x-axis.
If 27\int_{1}^{3}\left((f'(t))^{2}+1\right)f''(t)\,dt=\alpha+\beta\sqrt{3}
where \alpha,\beta are integers, then the value of \alpha+\beta equals:
(1) -14
(2) 26
(3) -16
(4) 36
Answer. (2)
Question 10. Let P be a point on the hyperbola H:\frac{x^{2}}{9}-\frac{y^{2}}{4}=1 in the first quadrant such that the area of the triangle formed by P and the two foci of H is 2\sqrt{13}. Then, the square of the distance of P from the origin is:
(1) 18
(2) 26
(3) 22
(4) 20
Answer. (3)
Question 11. Bag A contains 3 white balls and 7 red balls. Bag B contains 3 white balls and 2 red balls. One bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. The probability that the ball is drawn from bag A, given that the ball drawn is white, is:
(1) \frac{1}{4}
(2) \frac{1}{9}
(3) \frac{1}{3}
(4) \frac{3}{10}
Answer. (3)
Question 12. Let f:R\rightarrow R be defined by f(x)=ae^{2x}+be^{x}+cx. If
f(0)=-1, f'(\log_e 2)=21, and \int_{0}^{\log_e 4}(f(x)-cx)\,dx=\frac{39}{2}, then the value of|a+b+c| is equal to:
(1) 16
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 8
Answer. (4)
Question 13. Let L_{1}:\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k})+\lambda(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k}),\ \lambda\in R
L_{2}:\vec{r}=(\hat{j}-\hat{k})+\mu(3\hat{i}+\hat{j}+p\hat{k}),\ \mu\in Rand
L_{3}:\vec{r}=\delta(\ell\hat{i}+m\hat{j}+n\hat{k}),\ \delta\in RBe three lines such that L_{1} is perpendicular to L_{2} and
L_{3} is perpendicular to both L_{1} and L_{2}. Then the point which lies on L_{3} is:
(1) (-1, 7, 4)
(2) (-1, -7, 4)
(3) (1, 7. -4)
(4) (1, -7, 4)
Answer. (1)
Question 14. Let a and b be real constants such that the function f defined by
f\left(x\right)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}x^2+3x+a,&x\leq1\\bx+2,&x>1\end{array}\right.
be differentiable on R. Then the value of \int_{-2}^{2} f(x)\,dx is equal to:
(1) \frac{15}{6}
(2) \frac{19}{6}
(3) 21
(4) 17
Answer. (4)
Question 15. Let f:\mathbb{R}-{0}\rightarrow\mathbb{R} be a function satisfying f\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)=\frac{f(x)}{f(y)} for all x,y with f(y)\neq0.
If f'(1)=2024, then which of the following is correct?
(1) x f'(x)-2024 f(x)=0
(2) x f'(x)+2024 f(x)=0
(3) x f'(x)+f(x)=2024
(4) x f'(x)-2023 f(x)=0
Answer. (1)
Question 16. If z is a complex number, then the number of common roots of the equation z^{1985}+z^{100}+1=0 and z^{3}+2z^{2}+2z+1=0 is equal to :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3
Answer: (2)
Question 17. Suppose 2-p,\ p,\ 2-\alpha,\ \alpha are the coefficients of four consecutive terms in the expansion of ^{n}. Then the value of p^{2}-\alpha^{2}+6\alpha+2p is equal to :
(1) 4
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) No unique numerical value
Answer: (4) No unique numerical value
Question 18. If the domain of the function
f(x)=\log_{e}\left(\frac{2x+3}{4x^{2}+x-3}\right)+\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{2x-1}{x+2}\right)is (\alpha,\beta], then the value of 5\beta-4\alpha is equal to :
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 11
(4) 9
Answer: (2)
Question 19. Let f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R} be a function defined by
f(x)=\frac{x}{(1+x^{4})^{1/4}} and g(x)=f(f(f(f(x)))).
Then the value of 18\int_{0}^{\sqrt{2\sqrt{5}}}x^{2}g(x)\,dx is equal to :
(1) 33
(2) 36
(3) 42
(4) 39
Answer: (4)
Question 20. Let R=\begin{pmatrix}x&0&0\\0&y&0\\0&0&z\end{pmatrix} be a non-zero 3\times 3 matrix, where x\;\sin\;\theta\;=\;y\;\sin\;\left(\theta+\frac{2\pi}3\right)=z\sin\left(\theta+\frac{4\pi}3\right) \neq0,\;\theta\in\left(0,\;2\pi\right). For a square matrix M, let trace (M) denote the sum of all the diagonal entries of M. Then, among the statements:
(I) Trace =0
(II) If trace =0, then R has exactly one non-zero entry.
(1) Both (I) and (II) are true
(2) Neither (I) nor (II) is true
(3) Only (II) is true
(4) Only (I) is true
Answer: (3)
Question 21. Let \alpha=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\left(\frac{({}^{n}C_{k})^{2}}{k+1}\right)
and \beta=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\left(\frac{{}^{n}C_{k}\,{}^{n}C_{k+1}}{k+2}\right). If
5\alpha=6\beta, then the value of n is equal to ____. (Answer is an integer)
Answer: 10
Question 22. Let S_{n} be the sum of first n terms of the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, … If 40<\left(\frac{6}{n(n+1)}\sum_{k=1}^{n}S_{k}\right)<42,
then the value of n is equal to ____.
Answer: 9
Question 23. In an examination of a Mathematics paper, there are 20 questions of equal marks.
The question paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. A student is required to attempt a total of 15 questions, taking at least 4 questions from each section. Section A has 8 questions, section B has 6 questions and section C has 6 questions. The total number of ways a student can select 15 questions is ___.
Answer: 11376
Question 24. The number of symmetric relations defined on the set {1,2,3,4} which are not reflexive is ___.
Answer: 960
Question 25. The number of real solutions of the equation x\left(x^{2}+3|x|+5|x-1|+6|x-2|\right)=0 is ____.
Answer: 1
Question 26. If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions of a travelling microscope and one smallest reading of the main scale is 0.5 mm, the Vernier constant of the travelling microscope is:
(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.01 cm
(4) 0.01 mm
Answer: (4)
Question 27. A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 60^\circ by a force of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface, as shown in the figure.
When the block is pushed up by 10 m along the inclined surface, the work done against the frictional force is given.
(1) 5\sqrt{3} \text{ J}
(2) 5 J
(3) 5 \times 10^3 \text{ J}
(4) 10 J
Answer: (2)
Question 28. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy (E_k) of the photoelectrons is plotted against the frequency (\nu) of the incident photons, as shown in the figure. The slope of the graph gives:
(1) Ratio of Planck’s constant to electric charge
(2) Work function of the metal
(3) Charge of electron
(4) Planck’s constant
Answer: (4)
Question 29 A block of ice at -10^{\circ}C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100^{\circ}C. Which of the following curves represent the phenomenon qualitatively?
Answer: (4)
Question 30. In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass M, three similar daughter nuclei of the same mass are formed. The speed of a daughter nucleus in terms of mass defect \Delta M is:
(1) \sqrt{\frac{2c\Delta M}{M}}
(2) \frac{\Delta Mc^{2}}{3}
(3) c\sqrt{\frac{2\Delta M}{M}}
(4) c\sqrt{\frac{3\Delta M}{M}}
Answer: (3)
Question 31. Choose the correct statement for processes A and B shown in the figure.
(1) PV^{\gamma}=k for process B and PV \neq k for process A
(2) PV=k for process B and process A
(3) \frac{P^{\gamma-1}}{T^{\gamma}}=k for process B and T=k for process A
(4) \frac{T^{\gamma}}{P^{\gamma-1}}=k for process A and PV=k for process B
Answer: (3)
Question 32. An electron revolving in the n^{\text{th}} Bohr orbit has magnetic moment \mu_n. If \mu_n \propto n^{x}, the value of x is:
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 0
Answer: (2)
Question 33. An alternating voltage V(t)=220\sin(100\pi t) volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50\Omega. The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:
(1) 5 ms
(2) 3.3 ms
(3) 7.2 ms
(4) 2.2 ms
Answer: (2)
Question 34. A block of mass m is placed on a surface having vertical cross section given by
y=\frac{x^{2}}{4}. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slipping is:
(1) \frac{1}{4}\ \text{m}
(2) \frac{1}{2}\ \text{m}
(3) \frac{1}{6}\ \text{m}
(4) \frac{1}{3}\ \text{m}
Answer: (1)
Question 35. If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t is 6.48\times10^{5}\ \text{J}, then the magnitude of the total momentum delivered to this surface for complete absorption is:
(1) 2.46\times10^{-3}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}
(2) 2.16\times10^{-3}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}
(3) 1.58\times10^{-3}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}
(4) 4.32\times10^{-3}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1}
Answer: (2)
Question 36. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I_{0} is passed through a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B. The principal plane of B makes an angle of 45^{\circ} with that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is:
(1) \frac{I_{0}}{4}
(2) I_{0}
(3) \frac{I_{0}}{2}
(4) \frac{I_{0}}{8}
Answer: (1)
Question 37. Escape velocity of a body from Earth is 11.2 km/s. If the radius of a planet is one–third the radius of Earth and its mass is one–sixth that of Earth, the escape velocity from the planet is:
(1) 11.2\ \text{km s}^{-1}
(2) 8.4\ \text{km s}^{-1}
(3) 4.2\ \text{km s}^{-1}
(4) 7.9\ \text{km s}^{-1}
Answer: (4)
Question 38. A particle of charge -q and mass m moves in a circle of radius r around an infinitely long line charge of linear charge density +\lambda.
The time period of motion is given by: (Consider k as Coulomb’s constant)
(1) T^{2}=\frac{4\pi^{2}m}{2k\lambda q}\,r^{3}
(2) T=2\pi r\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k\lambda q}}
(3) T=\frac{1}{2\pi r}\sqrt{\frac{m}{2k\lambda q}}
(4) T=\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{2k\lambda q}{m}}
Answer: (2)
Question 39. If mass is written as m = k c^{P} G^{-1/2} h^{1/2}, then the value of P is: (Constants have their usual meaning and k is a dimensionless constant)
(1) \frac{1}{2}
(2) \frac{1}{3}
(3) 2
(4) -\frac{1}{3}
Answer: (1)
Question 40. In the given circuit, the voltage across the load resistance R_{L} is:
(1) 8.75 V
(2) 9.00 V
(3) 8.50 V
(4) 14.00 V
Answer: (1)
Question 41. If three moles of a monoatomic gas with \gamma=\frac{5}{3} are mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas with \gamma=\frac{7}{5}, the value of adiabatic exponent \gamma for the mixture is:
(1) 1.75
(2) 1.40
(3) 1.52
(4) 1.35
Answer: (3)
Question 42. Three blocks A, B and C are pulled on a horizontal smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in the figure.
The tensions T_{1} and T_{2} in the string respectively are:
(1) 40\ \text{N},\ 64\ \text{N}
(2) 60\ \text{N},\ 80\ \text{N}
(3) 88\ \text{N},\ 96\ \text{N}
(4) 80\ \text{N},\ 100\ \text{N}
Answer: (1)
Question 43. When a potential difference V is applied across a wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a rate W. If the wire is cut into two equal halves and these halves are connected in parallel across the same supply, the new rate of energy dissipation will be:
(1) \frac{1}{4}W
(2) \frac{1}{2}W
(3) 2W
(4) 4W
Answer: (4)
Question 44. Match List I with List II.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Gauss’s law of magnetostatics | I. \oint \vec{E}\cdot \vec{da}=\frac{1}{\varepsilon_{0}}\int \rho\,dV |
| B. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction | II. \oint \vec{B}\cdot \vec{da}=0 |
| C. Ampere’s law | III. \oint \vec{E}\cdot d\vec{l}=-\frac{d}{dt}\int \vec{B}\cdot \vec{da} |
| D. Gauss’s law of electrostatics | IV. \oint \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{l}=\mu_{0}I |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(4) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
Answer: (4)
Question 45. Projectiles A and B are thrown from the top of a 400 m high tower at angles 45^{\circ} and 60^{\circ} with the vertical respectively. If their ranges and times of flight are the same, the ratio of their speeds of projection v_{A}:v_{B} is:
(1) 1:\sqrt{3}
(2) \sqrt{2}:1
(3) 1:2
(4) None of these
Answer: (4)
Question 46. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2.3 kV to a step-down transformer with its primary winding having 3000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer.
The current in the primary of the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90\%.
The winding of the transformer is made of copper. The output current of the transformer is ____ A.
Answer: 45
Question 47. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small identical drops of water. If E_{1} is the total surface energy of the 1000 small drops and E_{2} is the surface energy of the single big drop, then E_{1}:E_{2}=x:1 The value of x is ____.
Answer: 10
Question 48. Two discs have moments of inertia I_{1}=4\ \text{kg m}^{2} and I_{2}=2\ \text{kg m}^{2} about their central axes and normal to their planes. They are rotating with angular speeds 10\ \text{rad s}^{-1} and 4\ \text{rad s}^{-1} respectively. The discs are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident. The loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process is ____J.
Answer: 24
Question 49. In an experiment to measure the focal length f of a convex lens, the magnitudes of object distance x and image distance y are measured with reference to the focal point of the lens. The y-x plot is shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is ____ cm.
Answer: 20
Question 50. A vector has magnitude equal to that of \vec{A}=3\hat{i}+4\hat{j} and is parallel to \vec{B}=4\hat{i}+3\hat{j}. The x and y components of this vector in the first quadrant are x and 3 respectively, where x = ____.
Answer: 4
Question 51. Which among the following purification methods is based on the principle of solubility in two different solvents?
(1) Column Chromatography
(2) Sublimation
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential Extraction
Answer: (4)
Question 52. Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when reacted with
Answer: (4)
Question 53. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: High concentration of a strong nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides that do not have bulky substituents follows S_N2 mechanism.
Statement II: A secondary alkyl halide when treated with a large excess of ethanol follows S_N1 mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Answer: (4)
Question 54. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on treatment with 50\% KOH solution yields
Answer: (2)
Question 55. Given below are two statements.
One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: H_2Te is more acidic than H_2S.
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H_2Te is lower than that of H_2S.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Answer: (2)
Question 56. Product A and B formed in the following set of reactions are:
Answer: (2)
Question 57. IUPAC name of the following compound is
(1) 2-Aminopentanenitrile
(2) 2-Aminobutanenitrile
(3) 3-Aminobutanenitrile
(4) 3-Aminopropanenitrile
Answer: (3)
Question 58. The products A and B formed in the following reaction scheme are respectively
Answer: (3)
Question 59. The molecule or ion with square pyramidal shape is:
(1) [Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}
(2) PCl_5
(3) BrF_5
(4) PF_5
Answer: (3)
Question 60. The orange colour of K_2Cr_2O_7 and purple colour of KMnO_4 is due to
(1) Charge transfer transition in both.
(2) d \rightarrow d transition in KMnO_4 and charge transfer transition in K_2Cr_2O_7.
(3) d \rightarrow d transition in K_2Cr_2O_7 and charge transfer transition in KMnO_4.
(4) d \rightarrow d transition in both.
Answer: (1)
Question 61. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO_2 gives A which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution produces B. A and B respectively are:
(1) Mn_2O_7 and MnO_4^-
(2) MnO_4^{2-} and MnO_4^-
(3) Mn_2O_3 and MnO_4^{2-}
(4) MnO_4^{2-} and Mn_2O_7
Answer: (2)
Question 62. If a substance A dissolves in a solution of a mixture of B and C with their respective number of moles as n_A, n_B and n_C, the mole fraction of C in the solution is:
(1) \frac{n_C}{n_A \times n_B \times n_C}
(2) \frac{n_C}{n_A + n_B + n_C}
(3) \frac{n_C}{n_A - n_B - n_C}
(4) \frac{n_B}{n_A + n_B}
Answer: (2)
Question 63. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Along a period, the chemical reactivity of elements gradually increases from group 1 to group 18.
Statement II: The oxides formed by group 1 elements are basic, while the oxides formed by group 17 elements are acidic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Answer: (3)
Question 64. The coordination geometry around the manganese in decacarbonyldimanganese(0) is:
(1) Octahedral
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square pyramidal
(4) Square planar
Answer: (1)
Question 65. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Since fluorine is more electronegative than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of
NF_3 is greater than NH_3.
Statement II: In NH_3, the orbital dipole due to the lone pair and the dipole moments of N–H bonds are in opposite directions, but in NF_3 the orbital dipole due to the lone pair and the dipole moments of N–F bonds are in the same direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate option:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: (2)
Question 66. The correct stability order of carbocations is:
Answer: (3)
Question 67. The solution from the following with the highest depression in freezing point (lowest freezing point) is:
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
Answer: (1)
Question 68. A and B formed in the following reactions are:
CrO_2Cl_2 + 4NaOH \rightarrow A + 2NaCl + 2H_2O A + 2HCl + 2H_2O_2 \rightarrow B + 3H_2O(1) A = Na_2CrO_4,\; B = CrO_5
(2) A = Na_2Cr_2O_4,\; B = CrO_4
(3) A = Na_2Cr_2O_7,\; B = CrO_3
(4) A = Na_2Cr_2O_7,\; B = CrO_5
Answer: (1)
Question 69. Choose the correct statements about the hydrides of group 15 elements.
A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the order
NH_3 > PH_3 > AsH_3 > SbH_3 > BiH_3B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases in the order
NH_3 < PH_3 < AsH_3 < SbH_3 < BiH_3C. Among the hydrides, NH_3 is a strong reducing agent while BiH_3 is a mild reducing agent.
D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the order
NH_3 < PH_3 < AsH_3 < SbH_3 < BiH_3Choose the most appropriate option:
(1) B and C only
(2) C and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A and D only
Answer: (3)
Question 70. Reduction potentials of ions are given below:
ClO_4^- IO_4^- BrO_4^-
E^\circ = 1.19\;V E^\circ = 1.65\;V E^\circ = 1.74\;V
The correct order of their oxidising power is:
(1) ClO_4^- > IO_4^- > BrO_4^-
(2) BrO_4^- > IO_4^- > ClO_4^-
(3) BrO_4^- > ClO_4^- > IO_4^-
(4) IO_4^- > BrO_4^- > ClO_4^-
Answer: (2)
Question 71. Number of complexes which show optical isomerism among the following is ____.
Answer: (4)
Question 72. NO_2 required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of N_2O_5 in CCl_4 as per the equation:
2N_2O_{5(g)} \rightarrow 4NO_{2(g)} + O_{2(g)}The initial concentration of N_2O_5 is 3 mol L⁻¹ and it becomes 2.75 mol L⁻¹ after 30 minutes. The rate of formation of NO_2 is x \times 10^{-3} mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹. Find the value of x.
Answer: (17)
Question 73. Two reactions are given below:
2Fe_{(s)} + \frac{3}{2}O_{2(g)} \rightarrow Fe_2O_{3(s)}, \;\Delta H^\circ = -822\;kJ\,mol^{-1} C_{(s)} + \frac{1}{2}O_{2(g)} \rightarrow CO_{(g)}, \;\Delta H^\circ = -110\;kJ\,mol^{-1}Find the enthalpy change for the reaction:
3C_{(s)} + Fe_2O_{3(s)} \rightarrow 2Fe_{(s)} + 3CO_{(g)}Answer: (492)
Question 74. The total number of correct statements regarding nucleic acids is ____.
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic information.
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell division.
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
D. The message for the synthesis of particular proteins is present in DNA.
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to daughter cells.
Answer: (3)
Question 75. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1 M benzoic acid (pK_a = 4.20) and 1 M sodium benzoate is 4.5. The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300 mL of this buffer solution is ___ mL.
Answer: (100)